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NEW QUESTION # 104
You just set up a security system in your network. In what kind of system would you find the following string of characters used as a rule within its configuration? alert tcp any any -> 192.168.100.0/24 21 (msg: ""FTP on the network!"";)

• A. FTP Server rule
• B. A Router IPTable
• C. An Intrusion Detection System
• D. A firewall IPTable

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 105
A group of hackers were roaming around a bank office building in a city, driving a luxury car. They were using hacking tools on their laptop with the intention to find a free-access wireless network. What is this hacking process known as?

• A. Wireless sniffing
• B. Spectrum analysis
• C. Wardriving
• D. GPS mapping

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 106
Peter, a system administrator working at a reputed IT firm, decided to work from his home and login remotely.
Later, he anticipated that the remote connection could be exposed to session hijacking. To curb this possibility, he implemented a technique that creates a safe and encrypted tunnel over a public network to securely send and receive sensitive information and prevent hackers from decrypting the data flow between the endpoints.
What is the technique followed by Peter to send files securely through a remote connection?

• A. SMB signing
• B. DMZ
• C. VPN
• D. Switch network

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION # 107
Insecure direct object reference is a type of vulnerability where the application does not verify if the user is authorized to access the internal object via its name or key. Suppose a malicious user Rob tries to get access to the account of a benign user Ned.
Which of the following requests best illustrates an attempt to exploit an insecure direct object reference vulnerability?

• A. "GET /restricted/accounts/?name=Ned HTTP/1.1 Host westbank.com"
• B. "GET /restricted/\r\n\%00account%00Ned%00access HTTP/1.1 Host: westbank.com"
• C. "GET /restricted/goldtransfer?to=Rob&from=1 or 1=1' HTTP/1.1Host: westbank.com"
• D. "GET /restricted/ HTTP/1.1 Host: westbank.com

Answer: A

Explanation:
This question shows a classic example of an IDOR vulnerability. Rob substitutes Ned's name in the "name" parameter and if the developer has not fixed this vulnerability, then Rob will gain access to Ned's account.
Below you will find more detailed information about IDOR vulnerability.
Insecure direct object references (IDOR) are a cybersecurity issue that occurs when a web application developer uses an identifier for direct access to an internal implementation object but provides no additional access control and/or authorization checks. For example, an IDOR vulnerability would happen if the URL of a transaction could be changed through client-side user input to show unauthorized data of another transaction.
Most web applications use simple IDs to reference objects. For example, a user in a database will usually be referred to via the user ID. The same user ID is the primary key to the database column containing user information and is generated automatically. The database key generation algorithm is very simple: it usually uses the next available integer. The same database ID generation mechanisms are used for all other types of database records.
The approach described above is legitimate but not recommended because it could enable the attacker to enumerate all users. If it's necessary to maintain this approach, the developer must at least make absolutely sure that more than just a reference is needed to access resources. For example, let's say that the web application displays transaction details using the following URL:
* https://www.example.com/transaction.php?id=74656
A malicious hacker could try to substitute the id parameter value 74656 with other similar values, for example:
* https://www.example.com/transaction.php?id=74657
The 74657 transaction could be a valid transaction belonging to another user. The malicious hacker should not be authorized to see it. However, if the developer made an error, the attacker would see this transaction and hence we would have an insecure direct object reference vulnerability.

NEW QUESTION # 108
User A is writing a sensitive email message to user B outside the local network. User A has chosen to use PKI to secure his message and ensure only user B can read the sensitive email. At what layer of the OSI layer does the encryption and decryption of the message take place?

• A. Session
• B. Presentation
• C. Application
• D. Transport

Answer: B

Explanation:
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Presentation_layer
In the seven-layer OSI model of computer networking, the presentation layer is layer 6 and serves as the data translator for the network. It is sometimes called the syntax layer. The presentation layer is responsible for the formatting and delivery of information to the application layer for further processing or display.
Encryption is typically done at this level too, although it can be done on the application, session, transport, or network layers, each having its own advantages and disadvantages. Decryption is also handled at the presentation layer. For example, when logging on to bank account sites the presentation layer will decrypt the data as it is received.

NEW QUESTION # 109
An ethical hacker is testing the security of a website's database system against SQL Injection attacks. They discover that the IDS has a strong signature detection mechanism to detect typical SQL injection patterns.
Which evasion technique can be most effectively used to bypass the IDS signature detection while performing a SQL Injection attack?

• A. Implement case variation by altering the case of SQL statements
• B. Use Hex encoding to represent the SQL query string
• C. Employ IP fragmentation to obscure the attack payload
• D. Leverage string concatenation to break identifiable keywords

Answer: D

Explanation:
The most effective evasion technique to bypass the IDS signature detection while performing a SQL Injection attack is to leverage string concatenation to break identifiable keywords. This technique involves splitting SQL keywords or operators into smaller parts and joining them with string concatenation operators, such as '+' or
'||'. This way, the SQL query can still be executed by the database engine, but the IDS cannot recognize the keywords or operators as malicious, as they are hidden within strings. For example, the hacker could replace the keyword 'OR' with 'O'||'R' or 'O'+'R' in the SQL query, and the IDS would not be able to match the signature of a typical SQL injection pattern12.
The other options are not as effective as option D for the following reasons:
* A. Implement case variation by altering the case of SQL statements: This option is not effective because most SQL engines and IDS systems are case-insensitive, meaning that they treat SQL keywords and operators the same regardless of their case. Therefore, altering the case of SQL statements would not help evade the IDS signature detection, as the IDS would still be able to match the signature of a typical SQL injection pattern3.
* B. Employ IP fragmentation to obscure the attack payload: This option is not applicable because IP fragmentation is a network-level technique that splits IP packets into smaller fragments to fit the maximum transmission unit (MTU) of the network. IP fragmentation does not affect the content or structure of the SQL query, and it does not help evade the IDS signature detection, as the IDS would still be able to reassemble the fragments and match the signature of a typical SQL injection pattern4.
* C. Use Hex encoding to represent the SQL query string: This option is not feasible because Hex encoding is a method of representing binary data in hexadecimal format, such as '0x41' for 'A'. Hex encoding does not work for SQL queries, as the SQL engine would not be able to interpret the hexadecimal values as valid SQL syntax. Moreover, Hex encoding would not help evade the IDS signature detection, as the IDS would still be able to decode the hexadecimal values and match the signature of a typical SQL injection pattern.
References:
* 1: SQL Injection Evasion Detection - F5
* 2: Mastering SQL Injection with SQLmap: A Comprehensive Evasion Techniques Cheatsheet
* 3: SQL Injection Prevention - OWASP Cheat Sheet Series
* 4: IP Fragmentation - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics
* : Hex Encoding - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics

NEW QUESTION # 110
You are the chief security officer at AlphaTech, a tech company that specializes in data storage solutions.
Your company is developing a new cloud storage platform where users can store their personal files. To ensure data security, the development team is proposing to use symmetric encryption for data at rest. However, they are unsure of how to securely manage and distribute the symmetric keys to users. Which of the following strategies would you recommend to them?

• A. Use digital signatures to encrypt the symmetric keys.
• B. Use HTTPS protocol for secure key transfer.
• C. implement the Diffie-Hellman protocol for secure key exchange.
• D. Use hash functions to distribute the keys.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Symmetric encryption is a method of encrypting and decrypting data using the same secret key. Symmetric encryption is fast and efficient, but it requires a secure way of managing and distributing the keys to the users who need them. If the keys are compromised, the data is no longer secure.
One of the strategies to securely manage and distribute symmetric keys is to use HTTPS protocol for secure key transfer. HTTPS is a protocol that uses SSL/TLS to encrypt the communication between a client and a server over the Internet. HTTPS can protect the symmetric keys from being intercepted or modified by an attacker during the key transfer process. HTTPS can also authenticate the server and the client using certificates, ensuring that the keys are sent to and received by the intended parties.
To use HTTPS protocol for secure key transfer, the development team needs to implement the following steps1:
* Generate a symmetric key for each user who wants to store their files on the cloud storage platform. The symmetric key will be used to encrypt and decrypt the user's files.
* Generate a certificate for the cloud storage server. The certificate will contain the server's public key and other information, such as the server's domain name, the issuer, and the validity period. The certificate will be signed by a trusted certificate authority (CA), which is a third-party entity that verifies the identity and legitimacy of the server.
* Install the certificate on the cloud storage server and configure the server to use HTTPS protocol for communication.
* When a user wants to upload or download their files, the user's client (such as a web browser or an app)
* will initiate a HTTPS connection with the cloud storage server. The client will verify the server's certificate and establish a secure session with the server using SSL/TLS. The client and the server will negotiate a session key, which is a temporary symmetric key that will be used to encrypt the data exchanged during the session.
* The cloud storage server will send the user's symmetric key to the user's client, encrypted with the session key. The user's client will decrypt the symmetric key with the session key and use it to encrypt or decrypt the user's files.
* The user's client will store the symmetric key securely on the user's device, such as in a password-protected file or a hardware token. The user's client will also delete the session key after the session is over.
Using HTTPS protocol for secure key transfer can ensure that the symmetric keys are protected from eavesdropping, tampering, or spoofing attacks. However, this strategy also has some challenges and limitations, such as:
* The development team needs to obtain and maintain valid certificates for the cloud storage server from a trusted CA, which might incur costs and administrative overhead.
* The users need to trust the CA that issued the certificates for the cloud storage server and verify the certificates before accepting them.
* The users need to protect their symmetric keys from being lost, stolen, or corrupted on their devices.
The development team needs to provide a mechanism for key backup, recovery, or revocation in case of such events.
* The users need to update their symmetric keys periodically to prevent key exhaustion or reuse attacks.
The development team needs to provide a mechanism for key rotation or renewal in a secure and efficient manner.
References:
* Key Management - OWASP Cheat Sheet Series
* Symmetric Cryptography & Key Management: Exhaustion, Rotation, Defence
* What is Key Management? How does Key Management work? | Encryption Consulting

NEW QUESTION # 111
In both pharming and phishing attacks, an attacker can create websites that look similar to legitimate sites with the intent of collecting personal identifiable information from its victims.
What is the difference between pharming and phishing attacks?

• A. Both pharming and phishing attacks are identical
• B. In a pharming attack, a victim is redirected to a fake website by modifying their host configuration file or by exploiting vulnerabilities in DNS. In a phishing attack, an attacker provides the victim with a URL that is either misspelled or looks similar to the actual websites domain name
• C. Both pharming and phishing attacks are purely technical and are not considered forms of social engineering
• D. In a phishing attack, a victim is redirected to a fake website by modifying their host configuration file or by exploiting vulnerabilities in DNS. In a pharming attack, an attacker provides the victim with a URL that is either misspelled or looks very similar to the actual websites domain name

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 112
Security administrator John Smith has noticed abnormal amounts of traffic coming from local computers at night. Upon reviewing, he finds that user data have been exfilltrated by an attacker. AV tools are unable to find any malicious software, and the IDS/IPS has not reported on any non-whitelisted programs, what type of malware did the attacker use to bypass the company's application whitelisting?

• A. Zero-day malware
• B. File-less malware
• C. Phishing malware
• D. Logic bomb malware

Answer: B

Explanation:
https://www.mcafee.com/enterprise/en-us/security-awareness/ransomware/what-is-fileless-malware.html Fileless malware can easily evade various security controls, organizations need to focus on monitoring, detecting, and preventing malicious activities instead of using traditional approaches such as scanning for malware through file signatures.Also known as non-malware, infects legitimate software, applications, and other protocols existing in the system to perform various malicious activities.It resides in the system's RAM. It injects malicious code into the running processes. (P.966/950)

NEW QUESTION # 113
While performing a security audit of a web application, an ethical hacker discovers a potential vulnerability.
The application responds to logically incorrect queries with detailed error messages that divulge the underlying database's structure. The ethical hacker decides to exploit this vulnerability further. Which type of SQL Injection attack is the ethical hacker likely to use?

• A. Error-based SOL Injection
• B. Blind/inferential SQL Injection
• C. In-band SQL Injection
• D. UNION SQL Injection

Answer: A

Explanation:
Error-based SQL Injection is a type of in-band SQL Injection attack that relies on error messages thrown by the database server to obtain information about the structure of the database. In some cases, error-based SQL injection alone is enough for an attacker to enumerate an entire database.
The ethical hacker is likely to use this type of SQL Injection attack because the application responds to logically incorrect queries with detailed error messages that divulge the underlying database's structure. This means that the attacker can craft malicious SQL queries that trigger errors and reveal information such as table names, column names, data types, etc. The attacker can then use this information to construct more complex queries that extract data from the database.
For example, if the application uses the following query to display the username of a user based on the user ID:
SELECT username FROM users WHERE id = '$id'
The attacker can inject a single quote at the end of the user ID parameter to cause a syntax error:
SELECT username FROM users WHERE id = '1'
The application might display an error message like this:
You have an error in your SQL syntax; check the manual that corresponds to your MySQL server version for the right syntax to use near ''1'' at line 1 This error message reveals that the database server is MySQL and that the user ID parameter is enclosed in single quotes. The attacker can then use other techniques such as UNION, subqueries, or conditional statements to manipulate the query and retrieve data from other tables or columns.
References:
* [CEHv12 Module 05: Sniffing]
* Types of SQL Injection (SQLi) - GeeksforGeeks
* Types of SQL Injection? - Acunetix

NEW QUESTION # 114
Heather's company has decided to use a new customer relationship management tool. After performing the appropriate research, they decided to purchase a subscription to a cloud-hosted solution. The only administrative task that Heather will need to perform is the management of user accounts. The provider will take care of the hardware, operating system, and software administration including patching and monitoring.
Which of the following is this type of solution?

• A. PasS
• B. CaaS
• C. SaaS
• D. IaaS

Answer: C

Explanation:
Software as a service (SaaS) allows users to attach to and use cloud-based apps over the web. Common examples ar email, calendaring and workplace tool (such as Microsoft workplace 365).
SaaS provides a whole software solution that you get on a pay-as-you-go basis from a cloud service provider.
You rent the use of an app for your organisation and your users connect with it over the web, typically with an internet browser. All of the underlying infrastructure, middleware, app software system and app knowledge ar located within the service provider's knowledge center. The service provider manages the hardware and software system and with the appropriate service agreement, can make sure the availability and also the security of the app and your data as well. SaaS allows your organisation to induce quickly up and running with an app at token upfront cost.
Common SaaS scenariosThis tool having used a web-based email service like Outlook, Hotmail or Yahoo!
Mail, then you have got already used a form of SaaS. With these services, you log into your account over the web, typically from an internet browser. the e-mail software system is found on the service provider's network and your messages ar hold on there moreover. you can access your email and hold on messages from an internet browser on any laptop or Internet-connected device.
The previous examples are free services for personal use. For organisational use, you can rent productivity apps, like email, collaboration and calendaring; and sophisticated business applications like client relationship management (CRM), enterprise resource coming up with (ERP) and document management. You buy the use of those apps by subscription or per the level of use.
Advantages of SaaSGain access to stylish applications. to supply SaaS apps to users, you don't ought to purchase, install, update or maintain any hardware, middleware or software system. SaaS makes even sophisticated enterprise applications, like ERP and CRM, affordable for organisations that lack the resources to shop for, deploy and manage the specified infrastructure and software system themselves.
Pay just for what you utilize. you furthermore may economize because the SaaS service automatically scales up and down per the level of usage.
Use free shopper software system. Users will run most SaaS apps directly from their web browser without needing to transfer and install any software system, though some apps need plugins. this suggests that you simply don't ought to purchase and install special software system for your users.
Mobilise your hands simply. SaaS makes it simple to "mobilise" your hands as a result of users will access SaaS apps and knowledge from any Internet-connected laptop or mobile device. You don't ought to worry concerning developing apps to run on differing types of computers and devices as a result of the service supplier has already done therefore. additionally, you don't ought to bring special experience aboard to manage the safety problems inherent in mobile computing. A fastidiously chosen service supplier can make sure the security of your knowledge, no matter the sort of device intense it.
Access app knowledge from anyplace. With knowledge hold on within the cloud, users will access their info from any Internet-connected laptop or mobile device. And once app knowledge is hold on within the cloud, no knowledge is lost if a user's laptop or device fails.

NEW QUESTION # 115
A company's security policy states that all Web browsers must automatically delete their HTTP browser cookies upon terminating. What sort of security breach is this policy attempting to mitigate?

• A. Attempts by attackers to access Web sites that trust the Web browser user by stealing the user's authentication credentials.
• B. Attempts by attackers to access password stored on the user's computer without the user's knowledge.
• C. Attempts by attackers to determine the user's Web browser usage patterns, including when sites were visited and for how long.
• D. Attempts by attackers to access the user and password information stored in the company's SQL database.

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION # 116
Shellshock allowed an unauthorized user to gain access to a server. It affected many Internet-facing services, which OS did it not directly affect?

• A. OS X
• B. Unix
• C. Linux
• D. Windows

Answer: D

NEW QUESTION # 117
An attacker can employ many methods to perform social engineering against unsuspecting employees, including scareware.
What is the best example of a scareware attack?

• A. A pop-up appears to a user stating, "You have won a free cruise! Click here to claim your prize!"
• B. A pop-up appears to a user stating, "Your computer may have been infected with spyware. Click here to install an anti-spyware tool to resolve this issue."
• C. A banner appears to a user stating, "Your account has been locked. Click here to reset your password and unlock your account."
• D. A banner appears to a user stating, "Your Amazon order has been delayed. Click here to find out your new delivery date."

Answer: B

NEW QUESTION # 118
Bill is a network administrator. He wants to eliminate unencrypted traffic inside his company's network. He decides to setup a SPAN port and capture all traffic to the datacenter. He immediately discovers unencrypted traffic in port UDP 161. what protocol is this port using and how can he secure that traffic?

• A. it is not necessary to perform any actions, as SNMP is not carrying important information.
• B. SNMP and he should change it to SNMP v2, which is encrypted
• C. SNMP and he should change it to SNMP V3
• D. RPC and the best practice is to disable RPC completely

Answer: C

Explanation:
We have various articles already in our documentation for setting up SNMPv2 trap handling in Opsview, but SNMPv3 traps are a whole new ballgame. They can be quite confusing and complicated to set up the first time you go through the process, but when you understand what is going on, everything should make more sense.
SNMP has gone through several revisions to improve performance and security (version 1, 2c and 3). By default, it is a UDP port based protocol where communication is based on a 'fire and forget' methodology in which network packets are sent to another device, but there is no check for receipt of that packet (versus TCP port when a network packet must be acknowledged by the other end of the communication link).
There are two modes of operation with SNMP - get requests (or polling) where one device requests information from an SNMP enabled device on a regular basis (normally using UDP port 161), and traps where the SNMP enabled device sends a message to another device when an event occurs (normally using UDP port
162). The latter includes instances such as someone logging on, the device powering up or down, or a wide variety of other problems that would need this type of investigation.
This blog covers SNMPv3 traps, as polling and version 2c traps are covered elsewhere in our documentation.
SNMP trapsSince SNMP is primarily a UDP port based system, traps may be 'lost' when sending between devices; the sending device does not wait to see if the receiver got the trap. This means if the configuration on the sending device is wrong (using the wrong receiver IP address or port) or the receiver isn't listening for traps or rejecting them out of hand due to misconfiguration, the sender will never know.
The SNMP v2c specification introduced the idea of splitting traps into two types; the original 'hope it gets there' trap and the newer 'INFORM' traps. Upon receipt of an INFORM, the receiver must send an acknowledgement back. If the sender doesn't get the acknowledgement back, then it knows there is an existing problem and can log it for sysadmins to find when they interrogate the device.

NEW QUESTION # 119
Mike, a security engineer, was recently hired by BigFox Ltd. The company recently experienced disastrous DoS attacks. The management had instructed Mike to build defensive strategies for the company's IT infrastructure to thwart DoS/DDoS attacks. Mike deployed some countermeasures to handle jamming and scrambling attacks. What is the countermeasure Mike applied to defend against jamming and scrambling attacks?

• A. A Disable TCP SYN cookie protection
• B. Allow the transmission of all types of addressed packets at the ISP level
• C. Implement cognitive radios in the physical layer
• D. Allow the usage of functions such as gets and strcpy

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION # 120
Gilbert, a web developer, uses a centralized web API to reduce complexity and increase the Integrity of updating and changing data. For this purpose, he uses a web service that uses HTTP methods such as PUT.
POST. GET. and DELETE and can improve the overall performance, visibility, scalability, reliability, and portability of an application. What is the type of web-service API mentioned in the above scenario?

• A. RESTful API
• B. REST API
• C. SOAP API
• D. JSON-RPC

Answer: A

Explanation:
*REST is not a specification, tool, or framework, but instead is an architectural style for web services that serves as a communication medium between various systems on the web. *RESTful APIs, which are also known as RESTful services, are designed using REST principles and HTTP communication protocols RESTful is a collection of resources that use HTTP methods such as PUT, POST, GET, and DELETE RESTful API: RESTful API is a RESTful service that is designed using REST principles and HTTP communication protocols. RESTful is a collection of resources that use HTTP methods such as PUT, POST, GET, and DELETE. RESTful API is also designed to make applications independent to improve the overall performance, visibility, scalability, reliability, and portability of an application. APIs with the following features can be referred to as to RESTful APIs: o Stateless: The client end stores the state of the session; the server is restricted to save data during the request processing o Cacheable: The client should save responses (representations) in the cache. This feature can enhance API performance pg. 1920 CEHv11 manual.
https://cloud.google.com/files/apigee/apigee-web-api-design-the-missing-link-ebook.pdf The HTTP methods GET, POST, PUT or PATCH, and DELETE can be used with these templates to read, create, update, and delete description resources for dogs and their owners. This API style has become popular for many reasons. It is straightforward and intuitive, and learning this pattern is similar to learning a programming language API. APIs like this one are commonly called RESTful APIs, although they do not display all of the characteristics that define REST (more on REST later).

NEW QUESTION # 121
Which of the following is a command line packet analyzer similar to GUI-based Wireshark?

• A. ethereal
• B. tcpdump
• C. jack the ripper
• D. nessus

Answer: B

Explanation:
Tcpdump is a data-network packet analyzer computer program that runs under a command-line interface. It allows the user to display TCP/IP and other packets being transmitted or received over a network to which the computer is attached. Distributed under the BSD license, tcpdump is free software.
https://www.wireshark.org/
Wireshark is a free and open-source packet analyzer. It is used for network troubleshooting, analysis, software and communications protocol development, and education.
NOTE: Wireshark is very similar to tcpdump, but has a graphical front-end, plus some integrated sorting and filtering options.

NEW QUESTION # 122
Given the complexities of an organization's network infrastructure, a threat actor has exploited an unidentified vulnerability, leading to a major data breach. As a Certified Ethical Hacker (CEH), you are tasked with enhancing the organization's security stance. To ensure a comprehensive security defense, you recommend a certain security strategy. Which of the following best represents the strategy you would likely suggest and why?

• A. Implement an Information Assurance (IA) policy focusing on ensuring the integrity, availability, confidentiality, and authenticity of information systems.
• B. Adopt a Continual/Adaptive Security Strategy involving ongoing prediction, prevention, detection, and response actions to ensure comprehensive computer network defense.
• C. Develop an in-depth Risk Management process, involving identification, assessment, treatment, tracking, and review of risks to control the potential effects on the organization.
• D. Establish a Defense-in-Depth strategy, incorporating multiple layers of security measures to increase the complexity and decrease the likelihood of a successful attack.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The security strategy that you would likely suggest is to adopt a Continual/Adaptive Security Strategy involving ongoing prediction, prevention, detection, and response actions to ensure comprehensive computer network defense. This strategy is based on the concept of continuous monitoring and improvement of the security posture of an organization, using a feedback loop that integrates various security activities and technologies. A Continual/Adaptive Security Strategy aims to proactively identify and mitigate emerging threats, vulnerabilities, and risks, as well as to respond effectively and efficiently to security incidents and breaches. A Continual/Adaptive Security Strategy can help enhance the organization's security stance by providing the following benefits12:
* It can reduce the attack surface and the exposure time of the organization's network infrastructure, by applying timely patches, updates, and configurations, as well as by implementing security controls and policies.
* It can increase the visibility and awareness of the organization's network activity and behavior, by collecting, analyzing, and correlating data from various sources, such as logs, sensors, alerts, and reports.
* It can improve the detection and prevention capabilities of the organization, by using advanced tools and techniques, such as artificial intelligence, machine learning, threat intelligence, and behavioral analytics, to identify and block malicious or anomalous patterns and indicators.
* It can enhance the response and recovery processes of the organization, by using automated and orchestrated actions, such as isolation, quarantine, remediation, and restoration, to contain and resolve security incidents and breaches, as well as by conducting lessons learned and root cause analysis to prevent recurrence.
The other options are not as appropriate as option C for the following reasons:
* A. Develop an in-depth Risk Management process, involving identification, assessment, treatment, tracking, and review of risks to control the potential effects on the organization: This option is not sufficient because risk management is only one aspect of a comprehensive security strategy, and it does not address the dynamic and evolving nature of cyber threats and vulnerabilities. Risk management is a process of identifying, analyzing, evaluating, and treating the risks that may affect the organization's objectives and operations, as well as monitoring and reviewing the effectiveness of the risk treatment measures3. Risk management can help the organization prioritize and allocate resources for security, but it cannot guarantee the prevention or detection of security incidents and breaches, nor the response and recovery from them.
* B. Establish a Defense-in-Depth strategy, incorporating multiple layers of security measures to increase the complexity and decrease the likelihood of a successful attack: This option is not optimal because defense-in-depth is a traditional and static approach to security, and it may not be able to cope with the sophisticated and persistent attacks that exploit unknown or zero-day vulnerabilities. Defense-in-depth is a strategy of implementing multiple and diverse security controls and mechanisms at different layers of the organization's network infrastructure, such as perimeter, network, endpoint, application, and data, to provide redundancy and resilience against attacks4. Defense-in-depth can help the organization protect its assets and systems from unauthorized access or damage, but it cannot ensure the timely detection and response to security incidents and breaches, nor the continuous improvement of the security posture.
* D. Implement an Information Assurance (IA) policy focusing on ensuring the integrity, availability, confidentiality, and authenticity of information systems: This option is not comprehensive because information assurance is a subset of cybersecurity, and it does not cover all the aspects of a holistic security strategy. Information assurance is a discipline of managing the risks associated with the use, processing, storage, and transmission of information and data, and ensuring the protection of the information and data from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, modification, or destruction5.
Information assurance can help the organization safeguard its information and data from compromise or loss, but it does not address the prevention, detection, and response to security incidents and breaches, nor the adaptation and innovation of the security technologies and processes.
References:
* 1: Continual/Adaptive Security Strategy - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics
* 2: Continual Adaptive Security: A New Approach to Cybersecurity | SecurityWeek.Com
* 3: Risk Management - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics
* 4: Defense in Depth - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics
* 5: Information Assurance - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics

NEW QUESTION # 123
......

The Certified Ethical Hacker (CEH) certification is one of the most respected and globally recognized certifications in the cybersecurity industry. Certified Ethical Hacker Exam certification is designed to validate the skills and knowledge of professionals who are tasked with identifying and addressing security vulnerabilities in computer systems and networks. The EC-Council 312-50v12 exam is the latest version of the CEH certification and is widely regarded as one of the toughest exams in the cybersecurity industry.

 

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