Prepare CTFL4 Question Answers Free Update With 100% Exam Passing Guarantee [2025]
Dumps Real BCS CTFL4 Exam Questions [Updated 2025]
BCS CTFL4 Exam Syllabus Topics:
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NEW QUESTION # 99
A program is used to control a manufacturing line (turn machines on and off. start and stop conveyer belts, add raw materials to the flow. etc.). Not all actions are possible at all times. For example, there are certain manufacturing stages that cannot be stopped - unless there is an emergency. A tester attempts to evaluate if all such cases (where a specific action is not allowed) are covered by the tests.
Which coverage metric will provide the needed information for this analysis?
- A. Branch Coverage
- B. Statement coverage
- C. Code coverage
- D. Data flow coverage
Answer: A
Explanation:
Branch coverage is a type of structural coverage metric that measures the percentage of branches or decision outcomes that are executed by the test cases. A branch is a point in the code where the control flow can take two or more alternative paths based on a condition. For example, an if-else statement is a branch that can execute either the if-block or the else-block depending on the evaluation of the condition. Branch coverage ensures that each branch is taken at least once by the test cases, and thus reveals the behavior of the software under different scenarios. Branch coverage is also known as decision coverage or all-edges coverage.
Branch coverage is suitable for testing the cases where a specific action is not allowed, because it can verify that the test cases cover all the possible outcomes of the conditions that determine the action. For example, if the program has a condition that checks if the manufacturing stage can be stopped, then branch coverage can ensure that the test cases cover both the cases where the stage can be stopped and where it cannot be stopped.
This way, branch coverage can help identify any missing or incorrect branches that may lead to undesired or unsafe actions.
The other options are not correct because they are not suitable for testing the cases where a specific action is not allowed. Code coverage is a general term that encompasses various types of coverage metrics, such as statement coverage, branch coverage, data flow coverage, etc. Code coverage does not specify which type of coverage metric is used for the analysis. Data flow coverage is a type of structural coverage metric that measures the percentage of data flow paths that are executed by the test cases. A data flow path is a sequence of statements that define, use, or kill a variable. Data flow coverage is useful for testing the correctness and completeness of the data manipulation in the software, but not for testing the conditions that determine the actions. Statement coverage is a type of structural coverage metric that measures the percentage of statements or lines of code that are executed by the test cases. Statement coverage ensures that each statement is executed at least once by the test cases, but it does not reveal the behavior of the software under different scenarios.
Statement coverage is a weaker criterion than branch coverage, because it does not account for the branches or decision outcomes in the code. References = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 syllabus, Chapter 4: Test Techniques, Section 4.3: Structural Testing Techniques, Pages 51-54.
NEW QUESTION # 100
Which of the following statements best describes how configuration management supports testing?
- A. Configuration management is an administrative discipline that includes change control, which is the process of controlling the changes to identified items referred to as Configuration Items'
- B. Configuration management helps ensure that all relevant project documentation and software items are uniquely identified in all their versions and therefore can be unambiguously referenced in test documentation
- C. Configuration management is an approach to interoperability testing where tests are executed in the cloud, as the cloud can provide cost-effective access to multiple configurations of the test environments
- D. Configuration management helps reduce testing effort by identifying a manageable number of test environment configurations in which to test the software, out of all possible configurations of the environment in which the software will be released
Answer: B
Explanation:
This answer is correct because configuration management is a process of establishing and maintaining consistency of a product's performance, functional, and physical attributes with its requirements, design, and operational information throughout its life. Configuration management helps ensure that all relevant project documentation and software items are uniquely identified in all their versions and therefore can be unambiguously referenced in test documentation. This supports testing by providing traceability, consistency, and control over the test artifacts and the software under test. References: : ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, : ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.2.2.2
NEW QUESTION # 101
Testing Quadrants, as a model, is effective in aligning stakeholders within Agile teams.
Which of the following examples demonstrates this?
- A. Using Testing Quadrant, the test manager is able to prioritize defects by linking these to a specific type of test.
- B. Using Testing Quadrants, the test manager is able to communicate potential product risk to all stakeholders.
- C. Using Testing Quadrants, the test manager is able to measure and communicate test coverage to all stakeholders.
- D. Using Testing Quadrants, the test manager is able to differentiate and describe the types of tests to all stakeholders.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Testing Quadrants model helps Agile teams by categorizing different types of tests and their purposes. This differentiation helps test managers explain the testing strategy to all stakeholders, ensuring everyone understands the scope and objectives of each test type. This model aids in planning, executing, and tracking testing activities across different quadrants, making it easier to align with stakeholders' expectations and project goals. Reference: ISTQB CTFL Syllabus V4.0, Section 5.1.7
NEW QUESTION # 102
Which of the following statements about white-box test techniques is true?
- A. Code-related white-box test techniques are not required to measure the actual code coverage achieved by black-box testing, as code coverage can be measured using the coverage criteria associated with black-box test techniques
- B. Achieving full statement coverage and full branch coverage for a software product means that such software product has been fully tested and there are no remaining bugs within the code
- C. Code-related white-box test techniques provide an objective measure of coverage and can be used to complement black-box test techniques to increase confidence in the code
- D. Branch coverage is the most thorough code-related white-box test technique, and therefore applicable standards prescribe achieving full branch coverage at the highest safety levels for safety-critical systems
Answer: C
Explanation:
This answer is correct because code-related white-box test techniques are test design techniques that use the structure of the code to derive test cases. They provide an objective measure of coverage, such as statement coverage, branch coverage, or path coverage, which indicate how much of the code has been exercised by the test cases. Code-related white-box test techniques can be used to complement black-box test techniques, which are test design techniques that use the functional or non-functional requirements of the system or component to derive test cases. By combining both types of techniques, testers can increase their confidence in the code and find more defects. Reference: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.3.2.2
NEW QUESTION # 103
The following 4 equivalence classes are given:
Which of the following alternatives includes correct test values for x. based on equivalence partitioning?
- A. -1000; -100; 100; 1000
- B. -500; 0; 100; 1000
- C. -100; 100:1000; 1001
- D. -99; 99:101; 1001
Answer: A
Explanation:
The question is about selecting the correct test values for x based on equivalence partitioning. Equivalence partitioning is a software test design technique that divides the input data of a software unit into partitions of equivalent data from which test cases can be derived. In this case, the given equivalence classes are:
(x \leq -100)
(-100 < x < 100)
(100 \leq x < 1000)
(x \geq 1000)
Option D provides a value from each of these partitions:
For (x \leq -100), it gives -1000.
For (-100 < x < 100), it gives -100 and 100.
For (100 \leq x < 1000), it gives 500.
For (x \geq 1000), it gives 1500.
So, option D covers all four given equivalence classes with appropriate values.
Reference:
1: ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 38
2: ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 39
3: ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus 2018, Version 4.0, p. 40
NEW QUESTION # 104
Which of the following is not an example of a typical generic skill required for testing?
- A. Be able to use test management tools and defect tracking tools
- B. Be able to apply test-driven development
- C. Possess the necessary social skills that support effective teamwork
- D. Be able to communicate defects and failures to developers as objectively as possible
Answer: B
Explanation:
Test-driven development is not an example of a typical generic skill required for testing, but rather an example of a specific technical skill or a development practice that may or may not be relevant for testing, depending on the context and the objectives of the testing activities. Test-driven development is an approach to software development and testing, in which the developers write automated unit tests before writing the source code, and then refactor the code until the tests pass. Test-driven development can help to improve the quality, the design, and the maintainability of the code, as well as to provide fast feedback and guidance for the developers. However, test-driven development is not a skill that is generally expected or needed for testers, especially for testers who are not involved in unit testing or who do not have access to the source code. The other options are examples of typical generic skills required for testing, which are skills that are applicable and beneficial for testing in any context or situation, regardless of the specific testing techniques, tools, or methods used. The typical generic skills required for testing include:
Be able to use test management tools and defect tracking tools: These are tools that help testers to plan, organize, monitor, and control the testing activities and resources, as well as to record, track, analyze, and resolve the defects detected during testing. These tools can improve the efficiency, the effectiveness, and the communication of the testing process, as well as to provide traceability, metrics, and reports for the testing outcomes.
Be able to communicate defects and failures to developers as objectively as possible: This is a skill that involves the ability to report and describe the defects and failures found during testing in a clear, concise, accurate, and unbiased manner, using relevant information, evidence, and terminology, without making assumptions, judgments, or accusations. This skill can facilitate the collaboration, the understanding, and the resolution of the defects and failures between the testers and the developers, as well as to prevent conflicts, misunderstandings, or blame games.
Possess the necessary social skills that support effective teamwork: These are skills that involve the ability to interact, cooperate, and coordinate with other people involved in or affected by the testing activities, such as the test manager, the test team, the project manager, the developers, the customers, the users, etc. These skills can include communication, negotiation, leadership, motivation, feedback, conflict resolution, etc. These skills can enhance the quality, the productivity, and the satisfaction of the testing process, as well as to foster a positive and constructive testing culture. Reference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:
ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.1.1, Testing and the Software Development Lifecycle ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.1.2, Testing and Quality ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.2.1, Testing Principles ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 1.2.2, Testing Policies, Strategies, and Test Approaches ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Test-driven Development, Test Management Tool, Defect Tracking Tool, Defect Report, Failure, Social Skill2
NEW QUESTION # 105
Which one of the following statements IS NOT a valid objective of testing?
- A. To evaluate work products such as requirements, user stories, design, and code.
- B. To build confidence in the level of quality of the test object.
- C. To find all defects in a product, ensuring the product is defect free.
- D. To find failures and defects
Answer: C
Explanation:
Finding all defects in a product and ensuring it is defect-free is not a valid objective of testing. Testing aims to find as many defects as possible, build confidence in the quality of the product, and evaluate work products. However, it is unrealistic to expect testing to find all defects, and declaring a product completely defect-free is impractical.
Reference: ISTQB CTFL Syllabus V4.0, Section 1.1.1
NEW QUESTION # 106
Which of the following statements about the shift-left approach is true?
- A. Shift-left in testing can be implemented in several ways to find functional defects early in the lifecycle, but it cannot be relied upon to find defects associated with non-functional characteristics
- B. Performance testing performed during component testing, is a form of shift-left in testing that avoids planning and executing costly end-to-end testing at the system test level in a production-like environment
- C. Shift-left in testing can be implemented only in Agile/DevOps frameworks, as it relies completely on automated testing activities performed within a continuous integration process
- D. Continuous integration supports shift-left in testing as it can reduce the time between the introduction of a defect and its detection, thereby reducing the cost to fix it
Answer: D
Explanation:
This answer is correct because shift-left in testing is an approach that aims to perform testing activities as early as possible in the software development lifecycle, in order to find and fix defects faster and cheaper, and to improve the quality of the software product. Continuous integration is a practice that supports shift-left in testing, as it involves integrating and testing the software components frequently, usually several times a day, using automated tools and processes. Continuous integration can reduce the time between the introduction of a defect and its detection, thereby reducing the cost to fix it and the risk of accumulating defects that could affect the functionality or performance of the software product. Reference: ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 3.1.1.3, Section 3.2.1.3
NEW QUESTION # 107
A typical objective of testing is to ensure that:
- A. a software has been properly covered
- B. there are no defects in a software that is about to be released
- C. a software has been tested using a combination of test techniques
- D. testing is used to drive the development of a software
Answer: C
Explanation:
This answer is correct because a typical objective of testing is to ensure that a software has been tested using a combination of test techniques, such as black-box, white-box, or experience-based techniques, that are appropriate for the test objectives, test levels, and test types. Testing using a combination of test techniques can increase the effectiveness and efficiency of testing, as different techniques can target different aspects of the software quality, such as functionality, usability, performance, security, reliability, etc. Testing using a combination of test techniques can also reduce the risk of missing defects that could be detected by one technique but not by another. References: ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.3.1.1, Section
2.3.2
NEW QUESTION # 108
Which of the following statements describes regression testing?
I. Retesting of a fixed defect
II. Testing of an already tested program
III. Testing of new functionality in a program
IV. Regression testing applies only to functional testing
V Tests that do not nave to be repeatable, because They are only used once
- A. II
- B. I, III, IV
- C. I, IV
- D. II, IV, V
Answer: A
Explanation:
Regression testing is the re-running of functional and non-functional tests to ensure that previously developed and tested software still performs as expected after a change1 It does not involve retesting of a fixed defect, testing of new functionality, or applying only to functional testing. Tests that are used for regression testing should be repeatable, because they are used to verify the stability of the software after each change2 References = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Chapter 4, Section
4.2.2, Page 291; ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Page 292
NEW QUESTION # 109
Which of the following is a factor that contributes to a successful review?
- A. The author of the work product to be reviewed leads the review meeting.
- B. Review metrics must be collected to improve the review process
- C. All participants in the review are aware they will be evaluated based on the defects they will find
- D. All participants in the review are trained to deal with the review type and its objectives.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 110
You are testing a room upgrade system for a hotel. The system accepts three differed types of room (increasing order of luxury): Platinum. Silver and Gold Luxury. ONLY a Preferred Guest Card holder s eligible for an upgrade.
Below you can find the decision table defining the upgrade eligibility:
What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?
Customer A: Preference Guest Card holder, holding a Silver room
Customer B: Non Preferred Guest Card holder, holding a Platinum room
- A. Customer A: offers upgrade to Gold Luxury room; Customer B: doesn't offer any upgrade
- B. Customer A; doesn't offer any upgrade; Customer B: offers upgrade to Gold luxury room
- C. Customer A: offers upgrade to Silver room; Customer B: offers upgrade to Silver room.
- D. Customer A: doesn't offer any upgrade; Customer B: doesn't offer any upgrade.
Answer: A
Explanation:
According to the decision table in the image, a Preferred Guest Card holder with a Silver room is eligible for an upgrade to Gold Luxury (YES), while a non-Preferred Guest Card holder, regardless of room type, is not eligible for any upgrade (NO). Therefore, Customer A (a Preferred Guest Card holder with a Silver room) would be offered an upgrade to Gold Luxury, and Customer B (a non-Preferred Guest Card holder with a Platinum room) would not be offered any upgrade. Reference = The answer is derived directly from the decision table provided in the image; specific ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 documents are not referenced.
NEW QUESTION # 111
Which of the following statements is true?
- A. Both in Agile software development and in sequential development models, such as the V-model, test levels tend to overlap since they do not usually have defined entry and exit criteria
- B. In Agile software development, the first iterations are exclusively dedicated to testing activities, as testing will be used to drive development, which will be performed in the subsequent iterations
- C. In Agile software development, work product documentation tends to be lightweight and manual tests tend to be often unscripted as they are often produced using experience-based test techniques
- D. Sequential development models impose the use of systematic test techniques and do not allow the use of experience-based test techniques
Answer: C
Explanation:
This answer is correct because in Agile software development, work product documentation, such as user stories, acceptance criteria, or test cases, tends to be lightweight and concise, as the focus is on working software and frequent communication rather than comprehensive documentation. Manual tests tend to be often unscripted, as they are often produced using experience-based test techniques, such as error guessing or exploratory testing, which rely on the tester's skills, knowledge, and creativity to find defects and provide feedback. References: ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 3.1.1.2, Section 3.2.1.2
NEW QUESTION # 112
Which ONE of the following options BEST describes black-box test techniques?
- A. Black-box testing techniques are based on experience with the test object without knowing the internal structure.
- B. In black-box testing techniques, test cases are created based on the software's implementation.
- C. Black-box testing techniques are based on analyzing the test object's specified and implied behavior without knowledge of its internal data structure.
- D. Black-box testing techniques involve analyzing the specified behavior of the test object without knowledge of its internal structure.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:Black-box testing techniques focus ontesting the functionality of the software without knowledge of its internal workings(D). They derive test cases from specifications, requirements, or expected behavior.Option Adescribes exploratory testing,Bcontradicts the definition by focusing on implementation, andCincorrectly includes "implied behavior," which is not a core characteristic of black-box testing.
NEW QUESTION # 113
Which of the following is an advantage of the whole team approach?
- A. It helps the whole team be more effective in test case design by requiring all team members to master all types of test techniques.
- B. It helps team members understand the current status of an iteration by visualising the amount of work left to do compared to the time allotted for the iteration
- C. It helps avoid the risk of tasks associated with a user story not moving through the Agile task board at an acceptable rate during an iteration.
- D. It helps team members develop better relationships with each other and make their collaboration more effective for the benefit of the project.
Answer: D
Explanation:
The whole team approach, often advocated in Agile methodologies, emphasizes collaboration and collective responsibility among all team members. This approach enhances the relationships within the team and improves overall collaboration, which in turn benefits the project's success. According to the ISTQB CTFL Syllabus v4.0, the whole team approach fosters better communication and cooperation, leading to more effective problem-solving and higher-quality outcomes.
NEW QUESTION # 114
A software company decides to invest in reviews of various types. The thought process they have is that each artifact needs to be reviewed using only one of the review methods depending on the criticality of the artifact.
- A. The thought process is correct. It wastes time to review same artifact using efferent review methods
- B. The thought process is correct. The whole company should decide or the review method based on their CMM level.
- C. The thought process is incorrect. Same artifact can be reviewed using different review methods
- D. The thought process is incorrect. The whole company should adopt same standard for review of all artifacts.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The thought process of the software company is incorrect, because it assumes that each artifact can be reviewed using only one review method, and that the review method depends solely on the criticality of the artifact. This is a simplistic and rigid approach that does not consider the benefits and limitations of different review methods, the context and purpose of the review, and the feedback and improvement opportunities that can be gained from multiple reviews. According to the CTFL 4.0 Syllabus, the selection of review methods should be based on several factors, such as the type and level of detail of the artifact, the availability and competence of the reviewers, the time and budget constraints, the expected defects and risks, and the desired outcomes and quality criteria. Moreover, the same artifact can be reviewed using different review methods at different stages of the development lifecycle, to ensure that the artifact meets the changing requirements, standards, and expectations of the stakeholders. For example, a requirement specification can be reviewed using an informal review method, such as a walkthrough, to get an initial feedback from the users and developers, and then using a formal review method, such as an inspection, to verify the completeness, correctness, and consistency of the specification. Therefore, the software company should adopt a more flexible and context-sensitive approach to selecting and applying review methods for different artifacts, rather than following a fixed and arbitrary rule. Reference = CTFL 4.0 Syllabus, Section 3.2.1, page 31-32; Section 3.2.2, page 33-34; Section 3.2.3, page 35-36.
NEW QUESTION # 115
Which one of the following is a typical entry criteria for testing?
- A. Planned tests have been executed.
- B. The number of unresolved defects is within an agreed limit.
- C. The number of estimated remaining defects is sufficiently low.
- D. Availability of testable requirements.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A typical entry criterion for testing is the availability of testable requirements. Testable requirements provide a basis for designing and executing test cases. Without clear and testable requirements, it is challenging to determine what needs to be tested and to create effective test cases. Entry criteria ensure that the necessary preconditions are met before testing begins, which helps in conducting efficient and effective testing.
NEW QUESTION # 116
An alphanumeric password must be between 4 and 7 characters long and must contain at least one numeric character, one capital (uppercase) letter and one lowercase letter of the alphabet.
Which one of the following sets of test cases represents the correct outcome of a two-value boundary value analysis applied to the password length? (Note: test cases are separated by a semicolon)
- A. 1xB: aB11: 99rSp: 5NnN10; 4NnN10T; 44ghWn19
- B. aB11;99rSp:5NnN10;7iDD0a1x
- C. 1xA;aB11;Pq1ZZab;7iDD0a1x
- D. 1RhT;rSp53;3N3e10;8sBdby
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct outcome of a two-value boundary value analysis applied to the password length is the set of test cases represented by option D. Boundary value analysis is a test design technique that focuses on the values at the boundaries of an equivalence partition, such as the minimum and maximum values, or the values just above and below the boundaries. A two-value boundary value analysis uses two values for each boundary, one representing the valid value and one representing the invalid value. For example, if the valid range of values is from 4 to 7, then the two values for the lower boundary are 3 and 4, and the two values for the upper boundary are 7 and 8. The test cases in option D use these values for the password length, while also satisfying the other requirements of the password, such as containing at least one numeric character, one capital letter, and one lowercase letter. The test cases in option D are:
1RhT: a 4-character password that is valid
rSp53: a 5-character password that is valid
3N3e10: a 6-character password that is valid
8sBdby: an 8-character password that is invalid The test cases in the other options are incorrect, because they either use values that are not at the boundaries of the password length, or they do not meet the other requirements of the password. For example, the test cases in option A are:
1xA: a 3-character password that is invalid, but it does not contain a capital letter aB11: a 4-character password that is valid Pq1ZZab: a 7-character password that is valid
7iDD0a1x: an 8-character password that is invalid Reference: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 sources and documents:
ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Chapter 2.2.1, Black-box Test Design Techniques1 ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, Boundary Value Analysis, Equivalence Partition2
NEW QUESTION # 117
A Test Manager conducts risk assessment for a project. One of the identified risks is: The sub-contractor may fail to meet his commitment". If this risk materializes. it will lead to delay in completion of testing required for the current cycle.
Which of the following sentences correctly describes the risk?
- A. It is a object risk since successful completion of the object depends on successful and timely completion of the tests
- B. It is no longer a risk for the Test Manager since an independent party (the sub-contractor) is now managing it
- C. It is a product risk since default on part of the sub-contractor may lead to delay in release of the product
- D. It is a product risk since any risk associated with development timeline is a product risk.
Answer: C
Explanation:
* A product risk is a risk that affects the quality or timeliness of the software product being developed or tested1. Product risks are related to the requirements, design, implementation, verification, and maintenance of the software product2.
* The risk of the sub-contractor failing to meet his commitment is a product risk, as it could cause a delay in the completion of the testing required for the current cycle, which in turn could affect the release date of the product. The release date is an important aspect of the product quality, as it reflects the customer satisfaction and the market competitiveness of the product3.
* The other options are not correct because:
* A. It is not true that any risk associated with development timeline is a product risk. Some risks could be project risks, which are risks that affect the management or control of the software project, such as budget, resources, schedule, or communication1. For example, a risk of losing a key project stakeholder is a project risk, not a product risk.
* B. It is not true that the risk is no longer a risk for the Test Manager since an independent party is managing it. The Test Manager is still responsible for ensuring that the testing activities are completed according to the test plan and the quality objectives4. The Test Manager should monitor and control the sub-contractor's performance and communicate with him regularly to identify and mitigate any potential issues or deviations5.
* C. It is not clear what is meant by "object" in this option, but it could be interpreted as the software system under test or the test object6. In any case, the risk is not an object risk, as it does not affect the successful completion of the object, but rather the successful completion of the testing of the object. An object risk could be a risk that affects the functionality, reliability, usability, efficiency, maintainability, or portability of the software system under test2. For example, a risk of the software system having a high complexity or a low testability is an object risk, not a product risk.
References =
* 1 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 97
* 2 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 98
* 3 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 99
* 4 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 100
* 5 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 101
* 6 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 102
NEW QUESTION # 118
During component testing of a program if 100% decision coverage is achieved, which of the following coverage criteria is also guaranteed to be 100%?
- A. 100% Boundary value coverage
- B. 100% Stale transition coverage
- C. 100% Equivalence class coverage
- D. 100% Statement coverage
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement coverage is a structural coverage metric that measures the percentage of executable statements in the source code that are executed by a test suite1. Decision coverage is another structural coverage metric that measures the percentage of decision outcomes (such as branches or conditions) in the source code that are executed by a test suite1. Decision coverage is a stronger metric than statement coverage, because it requires that every possible outcome of each decision is tested, while statement coverage only requires that every statement is executed at least once2. Therefore, if a test suite achieves 100% decision coverage, it also implies that it achieves 100% statement coverage, because every statement in every branch or condition must have been executed. However, the converse is not true: 100% statement coverage does not guarantee 100% decision coverage, because some branches or conditions may have multiple outcomes that are not tested by the test suite2. For example, consider the following pseudocode:
if (x > 0) then print("Positive") else print("Non-positive") end if
A test suite that executes this code with x = 1 and x = -1 will achieve 100% statement coverage, because both print statements are executed. However, it will not achieve 100% decision coverage, because the condition x
> 0 has only been tested with two outcomes: true and false. The third possible outcome, x = 0, has not been tested by the test suite. Therefore, the test suite may miss a potential bug or error in the condition or the branch.
The other options, such as stale transition coverage, equivalence class coverage, and boundary value coverage, are not guaranteed to be 100% by achieving 100% decision coverage. Stale transition coverage is a structural coverage metric that measures the percentage of transitions between states in a state machine that are executed by a test suite3. Equivalence class coverage is a functional coverage metric that measures the percentage of equivalence classes (or partitions) of input or output values that are tested by a test suite4. Boundary value coverage is another functional coverage metric that measures the percentage of boundary values (or extreme values) of input or output ranges that are tested by a test suite4. These metrics are independent of decision coverage, because they are based on different aspects of the system under test, such as its behavior, functionality, or specification. Therefore, achieving 100% decision coverage does not imply achieving 100% of any of these metrics, and vice versa. References = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Test Coverage in Software Testing - Guru99, Structural Coverage Metrics - MATLAB & Simulink - MathWorks India, Test Design Coverage in Software Testing - GeeksforGeeks.
NEW QUESTION # 119
The following rules determine the annual bonus to be paid to a salesman of a company based on the total annual amount of the sales made (referred to as TAS).
If the TAS is between 50k€ and 80k€, the bonus is 10%. If the TAS exceeds 80k€ by a value not greater than 40k€, the bonus is 15%. Finally, if the TAS exceeds the maximum threshold which entitles to a 15% bonus, the bonus is 22%.
Consider applying equivalence partitioning to the TAS (Note: 1k€ = 1000 euros).
Which one of the following answers contain only test cases that belong to the same equivalence partition?
- A. TC1 = 79k€; TC2= 80k€; TC3=81k€; TC4=82k€
- B. TC1 = 81 k€; TC2= 97k€; TC3=111k€; TC4=118k€
- C. TC1 = 40k€; TC2= 46k€; TC3=51k€; TC4=53k€
- D. TC1 = 90k€; TC2= 110k€; TC3=125k€: TC4=140k€
Answer: B
Explanation:
This answer is correct because equivalence partitioning is a test design technique that divides the input domain of a system or component into partitions of equivalent data, such that each partition is expected to produce the same output or behavior. Equivalence partitioning aims to reduce the number of test cases by selecting one representative value from each partition. In this case, the input domain of the TAS can be divided into four partitions based on the bonus rules: less than 50k€, between 50k€ and 80k€, between 80k€ and 120k€, and more than 120k€. The test cases in the answer belong to the same partition, which is between 80k€ and 120k€, and they are expected to produce the same output, which is a bonus of 15%. Reference: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 2.3.2.1
NEW QUESTION # 120
Use Scenario 1 "Happy Tomatoes" (from the previous question).
When running test caseTC_59, the actual result fort = 35degrees Celsius isOUTPUT = Xinstead of the expected output.
Which information should NOT be included in the defect report?
- A. A concise title and a short summary of the defect being reported
- B. Description of the structure of the test team
- C. Expected results and actual results
- D. Identification of the test object and test environment
Answer: B
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:A defect report should contain relevant details to help developersreproduce and fix the defect efficiently. The essential elements include:
* Test object & environment (A)- To ensure reproducibility.
* Title & summary (B)- For quick identification.
* Expected vs. actual results (D)- To describe the discrepancy.
Thestructure of the test team (C)is irrelevant for defect tracking and resolution.
NEW QUESTION # 121
A Test Manager conducts risk assessment for a project. One of the identified risks is: The sub-contractor may fail to meet his commitment". If this risk materializes. it will lead to delay in completion of testing required for the current cycle.
Which of the following sentences correctly describes the risk?
- A. It is a object risk since successful completion of the object depends on successful and timely completion of the tests
- B. It is no longer a risk for the Test Manager since an independent party (the sub-contractor) is now managing it
- C. It is a product risk since default on part of the sub-contractor may lead to delay in release of the product
- D. It is a product risk since any risk associated with development timeline is a product risk.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A product risk is a risk that affects the quality or timeliness of the software product being developed or tested1. Product risks are related to the requirements, design, implementation, verification, and maintenance of the software product2.
The risk of the sub-contractor failing to meet his commitment is a product risk, as it could cause a delay in the completion of the testing required for the current cycle, which in turn could affect the release date of the product. The release date is an important aspect of the product quality, as it reflects the customer satisfaction and the market competitiveness of the product3.
The other options are not correct because:
A . It is not true that any risk associated with development timeline is a product risk. Some risks could be project risks, which are risks that affect the management or control of the software project, such as budget, resources, schedule, or communication1. For example, a risk of losing a key project stakeholder is a project risk, not a product risk.
B . It is not true that the risk is no longer a risk for the Test Manager since an independent party is managing it. The Test Manager is still responsible for ensuring that the testing activities are completed according to the test plan and the quality objectives4. The Test Manager should monitor and control the sub-contractor's performance and communicate with him regularly to identify and mitigate any potential issues or deviations5.
C . It is not clear what is meant by "object" in this option, but it could be interpreted as the software system under test or the test object6. In any case, the risk is not an object risk, as it does not affect the successful completion of the object, but rather the successful completion of the testing of the object. An object risk could be a risk that affects the functionality, reliability, usability, efficiency, maintainability, or portability of the software system under test2. For example, a risk of the software system having a high complexity or a low testability is an object risk, not a product risk.
Reference =
1 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 97
2 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 98
3 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 99
4 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 100
5 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 101
6 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 102
NEW QUESTION # 122
The whole-team approach:
- A. promotes the idea that all team members should have a thorough understanding of test techniques
- B. is mostly adopted in projects aimed at developing safety-critical systems, as it ensures the highest level of testing independence
- C. is a consensus-based approach that engages the whole team in estimating the user stories
- D. promotes the idea that all team members should be responsible for the quality of the product
Answer: D
Explanation:
This answer is correct because the whole-team approach is a way of working in agile projects where all team members share the responsibility for the quality of the product, and collaborate on delivering value to the customer. The whole-team approach involves testers, developers, business analysts, product owners, and other stakeholders in planning, designing, developing, testing, and delivering the product. The whole-team approach fosters communication, feedback, learning, and continuous improvement within the team. Reference: ISTQB Glossary of Testing Terms v4.0, ISTQB Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Section 3.1.1.1
NEW QUESTION # 123
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