[Oct 23, 2021] Valid NCLEX-PN Test Answers & NCLEX NCLEX-PN Exam PDF
Realistic NCLEX-PN Exam Dumps with Accurate & Updated Questions
The benefit in Obtaining the NCLEX-RNî Examination
The NCLEX certified candidate provides a unique, comprehensive assessment of the health status of the client. The NCLEX certified candidate applies principles of ethics, client safety, health promotion and the nursing process to develop and implement an explicit plan of care that reflects unique cultural and spiritual client preferences, the applicable standard of care and legal considerations. The nurse assists clients to promote health, cope with health problems, adapt to and/or recover from the effects of disease or injury, and support the right to a dignified death. The NCLEX certified candidate is accountable for abiding by all applicable member board jurisdiction statutes and regulations/rules related to nursing practice.
Difficulty in Attempting NCLEX-RNî Examination
While the content of the exams remains consistent from form to form, questions used in the exams are written by industry professionals and continually updated. This means that a test form taken on one occasion will contain different questions from a test form taken on another occasion. Because of this, the level of difficulty will vary slightly from form to form. To compensate for these variations, a statistical procedure known as âÂÂtest equatingâ is used to correct for differences in test-form difficulty. You can use our NCLEX PN dumps pdf to start right now.
To maintain consistency in test scoring, a second statistical procedure called âÂÂscalingâ is used. Scaling on the NCLEX exams converts all scores to a scale from 100-600, with the passing score set at 400. Scores received from ISM are reported as scaled scores in increments of 10. If your scaled score on any exam is from 100-390, youâÂÂve failed that exam. If your scaled score is 400 or above, youâÂÂve passed that exam. Scaling on the CPSD Essentials in Supplier Diversity exam converts all scores to a scale ranging from 100-400, with the passing score set at 300. For example, if your scaled score on the CPSD Essentials in Supplier Diversity Exam is from 100-290, you failed. If the scaled score is 300 or above, you passed.
It is highly recommended that candidates get hands-on experience with supply chain systems in an enterprise environment before attempting a certification exam. By enhancing the developing applications skills and data models or running administration projects, candidates will gain valuable knowledge.
NEW QUESTION 295
A nurse runs into the significant other of a patient with end stage AIDS crying during her smoke break.
Which of the following is most appropriate action for the nurse to take?
- A. Tell her go ahead and cry, after all your husband's pretty bad off.
- B. Allow her to grieve by herself.
- C. Tell her you realize how upset she is, but you don't want to talk about it now.
- D. Approach her, offering tissues and encourage her to verbalize her feelings.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Psychosocial Integrity
Explanation:
Being left alone during the grief process, isolates individuals.
These individuals need an outlet for their feelings and to talk to someone who is empathetic.
NEW QUESTION 296
A 4-year-old client is unable to go to sleep at night in the hospital. Which nursing intervention best promotes sleep for the child?
- A. turning out the room light and closing the door
- B. identifying the child's home bedtime rituals and following them
- C. tiring the child during the evening with play exercises
- D. encouraging visitation by friends during the evening
Answer: B
Explanation:
Preschool-age children require bedtime rituals that should be followed in the hospital if possible. Choice 1 increases a child's fear. Choices 2 and 4 do not promote sleep. Basic Care and Comfort
NEW QUESTION 297
A client is 36 hours post-op a TKR surgery. 270 cc's of sero-sanguinous accumulates in the surgical drains. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Do nothing
- B. Remove the drain
- C. Empty the drain
- D. Notify the doctor
Answer: D
Explanation:
The physician should be notified if excessive drainage is noted from the surgical site.
NEW QUESTION 298
An adult who had been abused as a child is discussing the group therapy program. Which statement indicates that the client has gained insight?
- A. "I am now aware of how deep-seated my anger is. Before I did not realize I was angry."
- B. "The program has given me the courage to tell my mother how I felt about her role in my hurt."
- C. "There are so many people just like me, who are just normal people that had bad things happen to them."
- D. "I think I was a lonely child because I could not tell anyone about my abuse."
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Children who are abused learn to cope with the painful experiences by ignoring painful feelings and avoiding getting close to people. As adults, victims of abuse usually continue to repress feelings, avoid close interpersonal relationships, and frequently use alcohol or drugs to block painful memories. Long-term effects in adults might include criminal/violent behavior (for adult males), substance abuse, and a variety of social and emotional problems (including suicidal thoughts, anxiety, hostility, dissociation, and interpersonal difficulties). Psychosocial Integrity
NEW QUESTION 299
A client with cirrhosis of the liver presents with ascites. The physician is to perform a parancentesis. For safety, the nurse should ask the client to:
- A. eat foods low in fat.
- B. drink 1000 cc prior to the procedure to affect fluid loss.
- C. empty his bladder prior to the procedure.
- D. assume the prone position.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
When performing a parancentesis, the client must be sitting up to allow the fluid to settle to the lower abdomen. To prevent trauma to the bladder while inserting a needle to aspirate the fluid, the bladder must be empty. Basic Care and Comfort
NEW QUESTION 300
On first meeting, a new nurse manager makes eye contact, smiles, initiates conversation about the previous work experience of nurses, and encourages active participation by nurses in the dialogue.
Her behavior is an example of __________.
- A. passive aggressiveness
- B. assertiveness
- C. passiveness
- D. aggressiveness
Answer: B
Explanation:
Section: Safe and Effective Care Environment
Explanation:
This nurse manager is demonstrating assertive behavior.
Aggressive behavior dominates or embarrasses.
Passive behavior is nervous or timid.
Passive-aggressive behavior is dominating or manipulative without directness.
NEW QUESTION 301
When questioning an elder about suspected abuse, the nurse should keep the questions:
- A. nonjudgmental.
- B. indirect.
- C. probing.
- D. confrontational.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Questions about suspected should be direct and nonconfrontational. Indirect questions encourage denial.
Psychosocial Integrity
NEW QUESTION 302
A Roman Catholic client is preparing to have magnetic resonance imaging. He wants to wear his metal crucifix pendant while he is receiving the test. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
- A. "It is a violation of religious rights to forbid it."
- B. "I am sorry, but it is not safe for you to wear the crucifix during this test."
- C. "Because it gives you comfort, you may wear it."
- D. "You may wear it because it is important to you."
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
No metal objects may be worn while receiving magnetic resonance imaging, due to safety risks involved with the strong magnet. Other options for spiritual support should be explored with the client. Reduction of Risk Potential
NEW QUESTION 303
Why must the nurse be careful not to cut through or disrupt any tears, holes, bloodstains, or dirt present on the clothing of a client who has experienced trauma?
- A. The clothing is the property of another and must be treated with care.
- B. Such care decreases trauma to the family members receiving the clothing.
- C. The clothing of a trauma victim is potential evidence with legal implications.
- D. Such care facilitates repair and salvage of the clothing.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Trauma in any client, living or dead, has potential legal and/or forensic implications. Clothing, patterns of stains, and debris are sources of potential evidence and must be preserved. Nurses must be aware of state and local regulations that require mandatory reporting of cases of suspected child and elder abuse, accidental death, and suicide. Each Emergency Department has written policies and procedures to assist nurses and other health care providers in making appropriate reports. Physical evidence is real, tangible, or latent matter that can be visualized, measured, or analyzed. Emergency Department nurses can be called on to collect evidence. Health care facilities have policies governing the collection of forensic evidence. The chain of evidence custody must be followed to ensure the integrity and credibility of the evidence. The chain of evidence custody is the pathway that evidence follows from the time it is collected until is has served its purpose in the legal investigation of an incident. Physiological Adaptation
NEW QUESTION 304
A client has been diagnosed with Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) and transferred to the medical intensive care unit (ICU) subsequent to an acute bleeding episode. In the ICU, continuous Heparin drip therapy is initiated. Which of the following assessment findings indicates a positive response to Heparin therapy?
- A. increased platelet count
- B. decreased bleeding
- C. increased fibrinogen
- D. decreased fibrin split products
Answer: C
Explanation:
Effective Heparin therapy should stop the process of intravascular coagulation and result in increased availability of fibrinogen. Heparin administration interferes with thrombin-induced conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. Bleeding should cease due to the increased availability of platelets and coagulation factors.Physiological Adaptation
NEW QUESTION 305
Which direction given to the nursing assistant is most likely to accomplish the task of getting a urine specimen delivered to the lab immediately after collection?
- A. "This client is delirious, and we're worried about a urinary sepsis."
- B. "Make it a stat delivery."
- C. "Take this client to the bathroom now and collect a urine specimen from this voiding. Take the specimen to the lab immediately."
- D. "Please do it as soon as you can after break."
Answer: C
Explanation:
Effective delegation depends on clear, concise direction that leaves no room for question or interpretation on the part of the one being delegated to. Nursing assistants have a limited understanding of medical conditions and terminology, and should not be relied on to prioritize such tasks.Coordinated Care
NEW QUESTION 306
Which of the following is most likely to impact the body image of an infant newly diagnosed with Hemophilia?
- A. altered family processes
- B. immobility
- C. altered growth and development
- D. hemarthrosis
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Altered Family Processes is a potential nursing diagnosis for the family and client with a new diagnosis of Hemophilia. Infants are aware of how their caregivers respond to their needs. Stresses can have an immediate impact on the infant's development of trust and how others relate to them because of their diagnosis. The longterm effects of hemophilia can include problems related to immobility. Altered growth and development could not have developed in a newly diagnosed client. Hemarthrosis is acute bleeding into a joint space that is characteristic of hemophilia. It does not have an immediate effect on the body image of a newly diagnosed hemophiliac. Health Promotion and Maintenance
NEW QUESTION 307
Which cultural group has the highest incidence of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD)?
- A. African Americans
- B. Caucasians
- C. Asians
- D. Hispanics
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Caucasians have the highest incidence of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD). Reduction of Risk Potential
NEW QUESTION 308
Which of the following statements by an adult child of a client with late-stage Alzheimer's disease indicates a need for further teaching by the nurse?
- A. "I should provide a regular schedule for toileting."
- B. "I should assist my father with eating and drinking."
- C. "I should give my father oral care after every meal and bedtime."
- D. "I should talk to my father less because he can't communicate."
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Even though an Alzheimer's client might not be able to talk or communicate his needs, the family should still communicate through talking and touching. The other statements are correct and indicate adequate understanding. Reduction of Risk Potential
NEW QUESTION 309
Nonpharmacological pain management involves all of the following except __________.
- A. hypnosis alone.
- B. psychological care, including support groups.
- C. physical and psychological modalities.
- D. pain-reducing drugs only.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Physiological Integrity
Explanation:
All physical and psychosocial therapies can be used concurrently with drugs and other modalities to manage pain.
These interventions can be carried out by the nurse with the client and family.
NEW QUESTION 310
A client taking isotretinoin (Accutane) tells the nurse that she is pregnant. What should the nurse teach this client?
- A. Accutane is a Category D drug, which means it is unsafe in pregnancy.
- B. Her pregnancy is threatened, and the fetus is at risk for teratogenesis.
- C. She has a reportable condition, and the pregnancy must be terminated.
- D. Her pregnancy must be followed carefully by a genetic specialist.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Accutane is a Category X drug, which means pregnancy is contraindicated due to teratogenesis associated with the medication. The pharmaceutical manufacturer should be notified of any pregnancy occurring while taking the drug, but reporting is voluntary. Choosing to terminate the pregnancy is a personal decision that requires full information. Consultation with a genetic specialist or OB physician is indicated. Safety and Infection Control
NEW QUESTION 311
When suctioning a client, what is the usual amount of time the nurse should spend for each suction pass?
- A. 20 seconds
- B. 10 seconds
- C. 2 seconds
- D. 30 seconds
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Ten seconds is the usual amount of time the nurse should spend for each suction pass. Two seconds is not enough time to remove secretions. The remaining choices are too long and could lead to hypoxia and tissue trauma. Reduction of Risk Potential
NEW QUESTION 312
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