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Free N10-008 Exam Study Guide for the NEW [Mar-2024] Dumps Test Engine [Q237-Q261]

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Free N10-008 Exam Study Guide for the NEW [Mar-2024] Dumps Test Engine

N10-008 PDF Dumps Extremely Quick Way Of Preparation


CompTIA Network+ certification is vendor-neutral, which means that it covers a broad range of networking technologies and concepts. It is an entry-level certification that is suitable for individuals who have some basic knowledge of networking but do not have any formal experience or training. N10-008 exam is also ideal for professionals who are seeking to switch careers or expand their skills in networking.


Prerequisites for the CompTIA N10-008 Exam

The CompTIA Network+ N10-008 certifications are designed for those who have approximately 9 to 12 months of experience in network support or administration or academic training, along with day-to-day hands-on experience.

The prerequisites for this course includes:

  • Understanding of basic Linux commands and utilities

  • Understanding of PC components, laptops, and mobile devices

  • Working knowledge of Windows OS configuration

  • Basic knowledge of how networks function, including TCP/IP and OSI models

 

NEW QUESTION # 237
Which of the following would be the BEST choice to connect branch sites to a main office securely?

  • A. Proxy server
  • B. Bridge
  • C. VPN headend
  • D. Load balancer

Answer: C

Explanation:
Host-to-Site, or Client-to-Site, VPN allows for remote servers, clients, and other hosts to establish tunnels through a VPN gateway (or VPN headend) via a private network. The tunnel between the headend and the client host encapsulates and encrypts data.


NEW QUESTION # 238
A network administrator received complaints of intermittent network connectivity issues. The administrator investigates and finds that the network design contains potential loop scenarios. Which of the following should the administrator do?

  • A. Enable spanning tree.
  • B. Configure port security.
  • C. Change switch port speed limits.
  • D. Enforce 802. IQ tagging.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation
Spanning tree is a protocol that prevents network loops by dynamically disabling or enabling switch ports based on the network topology. Network loops can cause intermittent connectivity issues, such as broadcast storms, MAC address table instability, and multiple frame transmission. By enabling spanning tree, the network administrator can ensure that there is only one active path between any two network devices at any given time.
References:
CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Exam Objectives, page 91
CompTIA Network+ Cert Guide: Switching and Virtual LANs, page 172


NEW QUESTION # 239
A user recently made changes to a PC that caused it to be unable to access websites by both FQDN and IP Local resources, such as the file server remain accessible. Which of the following settings did the user MOST likely misconfigure?

  • A. DNS entries
  • B. Local host file
  • C. Default gateway
  • D. Static IP

Answer: C

Explanation:
The default gateway is the setting that the user most likely misconfigured on the PC that caused it to be unable to access websites by both FQDN and IP. The default gateway is a device, usually a router or a firewall, that connects a local network to other networks such as the Internet. It acts as an intermediary between devices on different networks and forwards packets based on their destination IP addresses. If the default gateway is not configured correctly on a PC, it will not be able to communicate with devices outside its local network, such as web servers or DNS servers. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/routing-information-protocol-rip/16448-default-gateway.html


NEW QUESTION # 240
A security engineer is installing a new IOS on the network. The engineer has asked a network administrator to ensure all traffic entering and leaving the router interface is available for the IDS. Which of the following should the network administrator do?

  • A. Install an additional NIC into the IDS
  • B. Install a loopback adapter for the IDS.
  • C. Install a network tap for the IDS
  • D. Configure ACLs to route traffic to the IDS.
  • E. Add an additional route on the router for the IDS.

Answer: C

Explanation:
Explanation
a network tap is a way of connecting an IDS out of band, which means it does not interfere with the normal network traffic. A network tap allows you to view a copy of the network traffic transmitted over the media being tapped.


NEW QUESTION # 241
Which of the following is a characteristic of the application layer?

  • A. It encrypts data in transit.
  • B. It performs address translation.
  • C. It checks independently for packet loss.
  • D. It relies upon other layers for packet delivery.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The application layer is the highest layer of the OSI model, and it provides the interface between the user and the network. It does not handle the details of packet delivery, such as addressing, routing, error checking, or encryption. Those functions are performed by the lower layers of the OSI model. The application layer only focuses on the format, content, and presentation of the data.
References:
Understanding the OSI Model - N10-008 CompTIA Network+ : 1.11
CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives, page 92


NEW QUESTION # 242
A company is moving to a new building designed with a guest waiting area that has existing network ports. Which of the following practices would BEST secure the network?

  • A. Enable MAC filtering to block unknown hardware addresses.
  • B. Ensure all guests sign an NDA.
  • C. Disable unneeded switchports in the area.
  • D. Lower the radio strength to reduce Wi-Fi coverage in the waiting area.

Answer: C

Explanation:
One of the best practices to secure the network would be to disable unneeded switchports in the guest waiting area. This will prevent unauthorized users from connecting to the network through these ports. It's important to identify which switchports are not in use and disable them, as this will prevent unauthorized access to the network.
Other practices such as ensuring all guests sign an NDA, lowering the radio strength to reduce Wi-Fi coverage in the waiting area and enabling MAC filtering to block unknown hardware addresses are not as effective in securing the network as disabling unneeded switchports. Enforcing an NDA with guests may not stop a malicious user from attempting to access the network, reducing the radio strength only limits the Wi-Fi coverage, and MAC filtering can be easily bypassed by hackers.


NEW QUESTION # 243
Which of the following passwords would provide the best defense against a brute-force attack?

  • A. Password! 1
  • B. ThislsMyPasswordForWork
  • C. T5!8j5
  • D. Qwerty!@#$

Answer: C

Explanation:
A brute-force attack is a method of guessing passwords by trying every possible combination of characters until the correct one is found. The longer and more complex the password, the harder it is to crack by brute-force. A password that provides the best defense against a brute-force attack should have a combination of uppercase and lowercase letters, numbers, and special characters, and should be as long as possible. The password T5!8j5 meets these criteria, while the other options are either too short, too simple, or too common.
Reference:
Password Attacks - N10-008 CompTIA Network+ : 4.21
CompTIA Network+ Cert Guide: Security Concepts and Tools, page 25: https://www.pearsonitcertification.com/articles/article.aspx?p=3021579&seqNum=2


NEW QUESTION # 244
Given the following Information:

Which of the following would cause performance degradation between PC A and PC B'?

  • A. Attenuation
  • B. Interference
  • C. Incorrect pinout
  • D. Decibel loss

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 245
A customer hired a network consultant to install a new wireless network with the following specifications:
2.4GHz
11Mbps
20MHz
Which of the following standards best fits these requirements?

  • A. 802.11ac
  • B. 802.11g
  • C. 802.11b
  • D. 802.11n

Answer: C

Explanation:
The 802.11b standard is a wireless networking protocol that operates in the 2.4GHz frequency band and supports a maximum data rate of 11Mbps. It uses a 20MHz channel width and a direct-sequence spread spectrum (DSSS) modulation technique2. The 802.11b standard was released in 1999 and is backward compatible with the original 802.11 standard3. The other standards do not match the specifications given by the customer. 802.11ac operates in the 5GHz band and supports higher data rates up to 6.9Gbps. 802.11g also operates in the 2.4GHz band but supports data rates up to 54Mbps. 802.11n can operate in both 2.4GHz and 5GHz bands and supports data rates up to 600Mbps. It also uses a wider channel width of 40MHz and a multiple-input multiple-output (MIMO) technology3.
Reference 2 - 802.11 Standards Explained: 802.11ax, 802.11ac, 802.11b/g/n, 802.11a - Lifewire 3 - Introduction to WLAN Frequency Bands | Engineering Education (EngEd ...


NEW QUESTION # 246
A network technician is reviewing an upcoming project's requirements to implement laaS. Which of the following should the technician consider?

  • A. Server hardware requirements
  • B. Operating system maintenance
  • C. Software installation processes
  • D. Type of database to be installed

Answer: A

Explanation:
IaaS stands for Infrastructure as a Service, which is a cloud computing model that provides virtualized computing resources such as servers, storage, and networking over the Internet. When implementing IaaS, the network technician should consider the server hardware requirements, such as CPU, RAM, disk space, and network bandwidth, that are needed to run the applications and services on the cloud. The other options are not relevant to IaaS, as they are either handled by the cloud provider or by the end-user. Reference: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-iaas


NEW QUESTION # 247
To reduce costs and increase mobility, a Chief Technology Officer (CTO) wants to adopt cloud services for the organization and its affiliates. To reduce the impact for users, the CTO wants key services to run from the on-site data center and enterprise services to run in the cloud. Which of the following deployment models is the best choice for the organization?

  • A. Public
  • B. SaaS
  • C. Hybrid
  • D. Private

Answer: C

Explanation:
A hybrid cloud deployment model is a combination of on-premise and cloud solutions, where some resources are hosted in-house and some are hosted by a cloud provider. A hybrid cloud model can offer the benefits of both public and private clouds, such as scalability, cost-efficiency, security, and control12. A hybrid cloud model can also reduce the impact for users, as they can access the key services from the on-site data center and the enterprise services from the cloud


NEW QUESTION # 248
A desktop support department has observed slow wireless speeds for a new line of laptops using the organization's standard image. No other devices have experienced the same issue. Which of the following should the network administrator recommend troubleshooting FIRST to resolve this issue?

  • A. Installing a new WAP
  • B. Updating the device wireless drivers
  • C. Increasing wireless signal power
  • D. Changing the protocol associated to the SSID

Answer: B

Explanation:
Wireless drivers can affect the performance and compatibility of your wireless connection5. If only a new line of laptops using the organization's standard image has experienced slow wireless speeds, it could be that their wireless drivers are outdated or incompatible with the network. Updating the device wireless drivers could resolve this issue.
Wireless drivers play an important role in the performance of a wireless connection, as they control how the device interacts with the wireless network. If the laptops in question are using an outdated version of the wireless driver, it could be causing the slow speeds. The network administrator should recommend updating the device wireless drivers first to see if this resolves the issue.


NEW QUESTION # 249
SIMULATION
You have been tasked with setting up a wireless network in an office. The network will consist of 3 Access Points and a single switch. The network must meet the following parameters:
The SSIDs need to be configured as CorpNet with a key of S3cr3t!
The wireless signals should not interfere with each other
The subnet the Access Points and switch are on should only support 30 devices maximum The Access Points should be configured to only support TKIP clients at a maximum speed INSTRUCTONS Click on the wireless devices and review their information and adjust the settings of the access points to meet the given requirements.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.



Answer:

Explanation:
See explanation below.
Explanation
On the first exhibit, the layout should be as follows

Graphical user interface, text, application, chat or text message Description automatically generated

Graphical user interface Description automatically generated

Graphical user interface, text, application, chat or text message Description automatically generated

Graphical user interface Description automatically generated

Exhibit 2 as follows
Access Point Name AP2
Graphical user interface Description automatically generated

Graphical user interface, text, application, chat or text message Description automatically generated

Graphical user interface Description automatically generated

Exhibit 3 as follows
Access Point Name AP3
Graphical user interface Description automatically generated

Graphical user interface, text, application, chat or text message Description automatically generated

Graphical user interface Description automatically generated


NEW QUESTION # 250
Which of the following is MOST commonly used to address CVEs on network equipment and/or operating systems?

  • A. Factory reset
  • B. Vulnerability assessment
  • C. Firmware update
  • D. Screened subnet

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 251
An organization recently connected a new computer to the LAN. The user is unable to ping the default gateway. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

  • A. The VLAN is incorrect.
  • B. The DHCP server is not available.
  • C. A static IP is assigned.
  • D. An RFC1918 address is being used

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
The DHCP server is not available is the most likely cause of the issue where a new computer is unable to ping the default gateway. DHCP stands for Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol, which is a network protocol that automatically assigns IP addresses and other configuration parameters to clients on a network. The default gateway is the IP address of the router or device that connects a local network to other networks, such as the internet. Pinging is a network utility that tests the connectivity and reachability between two devices by sending and receiving echo packets. If the DHCP server is not available, the new computer will not be able to obtain an IP address or other configuration parameters, such as the default gateway, from the DHCP server.
This will prevent the new computer from communicating with other devices on the network or the internet, resulting in ping failure. References: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives], What Is DHCP? | How DHCP Works | SolarWinds MSP


NEW QUESTION # 252
A network administrator is configuring a database server and would like to ensure the database engine is listening on a certain port. Which of the following commands should the administrator use to accomplish this goal?

  • A. nslookup
  • B. arp -a
  • C. ipconfig /a
  • D. netstat -a

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 253
A technician is configuring a wireless network and needs to ensure users agree to an AUP before connecting.
Which of the following should be implemented to achieve this goal?

  • A. Geofencing
  • B. Role-based access
  • C. Wireless client isolation
  • D. Captive portal

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 254
After installing a series of Cat 8 keystones, a data center architect notices higher than normal interference during tests. Which of the following steps should the architect take to troubleshoot the issue?

  • A. Connect the RX/TX wires to different pins.
  • B. Check to see if the end connections were wrapped in copper tape before terminating.
  • C. Run a speed test on a device that can only achieve 100Mbps speeds.
  • D. Use passthrough modular crimping plugs instead of traditional crimping plugs.

Answer: B

Explanation:
Cat 8 keystones are shielded to prevent interference from external sources, but they also require proper grounding to avoid interference from within the cable. Wrapping the end connections with copper tape before terminating them is one way to ensure a good ground connection and reduce interference. Using passthrough modular crimping plugs, connecting the RX/TX wires to different pins, or running a speed test on a slow device are not relevant or effective steps to troubleshoot the issue.
Reference:
CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Certification Study Guide, page 191
CompTIA Network+ N10-008 Cert Guide, Deluxe Edition, page 362
CAT8 RJ45 Keystone Problem : r/HomeNetworking2
How to Terminate Cat8 Shielded Keystone Jacks3


NEW QUESTION # 255
A company has multiple offices around the world. The computer rooms in some office locations are too warm Dedicated sensors are in each room, but the process of checking each sensor takes a long time. Which of the following options can the company put In place to automate temperature readings with internal resources?

  • A. Hire a programmer to write a script to perform the checks
  • B. Use SNMP with an existing collector server
  • C. Utilize ping to measure the response.
  • D. Implement NetFlow.

Answer: B

Explanation:
SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) is a protocol that allows network devices to communicate with a management server. By using SNMP, the company can set up an SNMP agent on each sensor, which will report its temperature readings to an existing collector server. This will enable the company to monitor the temperatures of all their sensors in real-time without the need for manual checks. Additionally, SNMP's scalability means that even if the company adds more rooms or sensors, the existing system can be easily expanded to accommodate them.


NEW QUESTION # 256
An infrastructure company is implementing a cabling solution to connect sites on multiple continents. Which of the following cable types should the company use for this project?

  • A. Multimode
  • B. Single-mode
  • C. Cat 7
  • D. Cat 6

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation
Single-mode fiber is a type of optical fiber that has a small core diameter and allows only one mode of light to propagate. This reduces signal attenuation and increases transmission distance, making it suitable for long-distance communication networks. Single-mode fiber can carry data over thousands of kilometers without requiring repeaters or amplifiers. Single-mode fiber is also immune to electromagnetic interference and has a higher bandwidth than multimode fiber. Therefore, single-mode fiber is the best cable type for connecting sites on multiple continents. References: [CompTIA Network+ Certification Exam Objectives],
[Single-mode optical fiber - Wikipedia]
Single-mode fiber optic cable uses a single ray of light to transmit data. This allows it to achieve very low attenuation and high bandwidth.
Multimode fiber optic cable uses multiple rays of light to transmit data. This results in higher attenuation and lower bandwidth than single-mode cable.
Twisted pair copper cable uses two insulated copper wires to transmit data. It is less expensive than fiber optic cable, but it has higher attenuation and lower bandwidth.
When choosing a cable type for a long-distance application, it is important to consider the following factors:
Attenuation: The amount of signal loss that occurs over the length of the cable.
Bandwidth: The amount of data that can be transmitted over the cable per second.
Cost: The cost of the cable and installation.
Single-mode fiber optic cable is the best choice for long-distance applications because it has the lowest attenuation and highest bandwidth of any cable type. However, it is also the most expensive cable type.


NEW QUESTION # 257
A corporation has a critical system that would cause unrecoverable damage to the brand if it was taken offline.
Which of the following disaster recovery solutions should the corporation implement?

  • A. Snapshots
  • B. Hot site
  • C. Full backups
  • D. Load balancing

Answer: B


NEW QUESTION # 258
SIMULATION
A network technician replaced a switch and needs to reconfigure it to allow the connected devices to connect to the correct networks.
INSTRUCTIONS
Click on the appropriate port(s) on Switch 1 and Switch 3 to verify or reconfigure the correct settings:
* Ensure each device accesses only its correctly associated network
* Disable all unused switch ports
* Require fault-tolerant connections between the switches
* Only make necessary changes to complete the above requirements
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.














Answer:

Explanation:
See the explanation for this solution.
Explanation
Switch 1 and Switch 2 is the only two switches that can be configured. Only switches linked together with there switch ports needs to be "tagged" and "LACP" needs to be enabled. The other ports must be untagged with no LACP enabled. You only need to assign the correct vlan via each port. 'Speed and Duplex' needs to be Speed=1000 and Duplex=Full, with is by default.
https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/topic/what-are-tagged-and-untagged-ports/


NEW QUESTION # 259
Given the following information:

Which of the following command-line tools would generate this output?

  • A. netstat
  • B. arp
  • C. dig
  • D. tracert

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
Tracert is a command-line tool that traces the route of a packet from a source to a destination and displays the number of hops and the round-trip time for each hop. The output shown in the question is an example of a tracert output, which shows five hops with their IP addresses and hostnames (if available) and three latency measurements for each hop in milliseconds. References:
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-network-n10-008-exam-objectives-(2-0),
https://www.lumen.com/help/en-us/network/traceroute/understanding-the-traceroute-output.html


NEW QUESTION # 260
A user tries to ping 192.168.1.100 from the command prompt on the 192.168.2.101 network but gets the following response: U.U.U.U. Which of the following needs to be configured for these networks to reach each other?

  • A. Loopback
  • B. Routing protocol
  • C. Default gateway
  • D. Network address translation

Answer: C

Explanation:
A default gateway is a device that routes traffic from one network to another network, such as the Internet. A default gateway is usually configured on each host device to specify the IP address of the router that connects the host's network to other networks. In this case, the user's device and the destination device are on different networks (192.168.1.0/24 and 192.168.2.0/24), so the user needs to configure a default gateway on their device to reach the destination device. Reference: https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-network-n10-008-exam-objectives-(2-0), https://www.techopedia.com/definition/25761/default-gateway


NEW QUESTION # 261
......

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