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2025 Easy Success CompTIA 220-1102 Exam in First Try [Q266-Q289]

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2025 Easy Success CompTIA 220-1102 Exam in First Try

Best 220-1102 Exam Dumps for the Preparation of Latest Exam Questions


To prepare for the CompTIA 220-1102 exam, candidates can take advantage of various resources, including online courses, study guides, practice exams, and virtual labs. It is essential to have practical experience in the field and a thorough understanding of the exam objectives to pass the exam successfully. Once certified, IT professionals can expect to earn a higher salary, have more job opportunities, and advance their careers in the IT industry.


CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2, also known as CompTIA 220-1102, is the second part of the CompTIA A+ certification program. CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2 certification is recognized worldwide as a standard for entry-level IT professionals, and passing the Core 2 exam demonstrates competency in troubleshooting and problem-solving for networking, mobile devices, and security.

 

NEW QUESTION # 266
A user is unable to access the company's internal network on a separate subnet. A help desk technician verifies the user's credentials, and the user has the appropriate permissions to access the network. The technician checks the network and finds the connection is stable. No other users are having this issue. Which of the following should the technician do next?

  • A. Consult with the firewall team to see If the user's IP address Is blocked.
  • B. Run a virus scan on the user's workstation.
  • C. Update the network drivers on the user's workstation.
  • D. Delete the user's credentials and create new ones.

Answer: A

Explanation:
In this scenario, the user cannot access a separate subnet, and all other checks (credentials, network stability, and permissions) have been verified. The next logical step is to check if the user's IP address is being blocked by a firewall.
* Option A: Consult with the firewall team to see if the user's IP address is blockedFirewalls can block specific IP addresses, preventing access to certain network segments. Given the problem's nature and the steps already taken, this is the most logical next step to ensure the user's IP is not inadvertently blocked.
* Option B: Delete the user's credentials and create new onesThis step is unnecessary since the credentials have already been verified as correct.
* Option C: Run a virus scan on the user's workstationWhile important for overall security, a virus scan is unlikely to resolve an issue specific to accessing a subnet if the problem does not affect other users.
* Option D: Update the network drivers on the user's workstationIf the network connection is stable and the issue is isolated to accessing a specific subnet, network drivers are unlikely to be the cause.
References:
* CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 2.0 (Security), particularly firewall settings.


NEW QUESTION # 267
A technician cannot uninstall a system driver because the driver is currently in use. Which of the following tools should the technician use to help uninstall the driver?

  • A. msinfo32.exe
  • B. dxdiag.exe
  • C. msconfig.exe
  • D. regedit.exe

Answer: C

Explanation:
The msconfig.exe tool, also known as the System Configuration utility, is a tool that allows users to modify various system settings, such as startup options, services, boot options, and more. One of the features of msconfig.exe is the ability to disable or enable device drivers that are loaded during the system startup. By using msconfig.exe, a technician can prevent a driver from being loaded and used by the system, which will allow them to uninstall it without any errors. To use msconfig.exe to disable a driver, the technician can follow these steps:
* Open the Run dialog box by pressing the Windows key + R.
* Type msconfig.exe and press Enter.
* Click on the Boot tab and then click on Advanced options.
* Check the box next to No GUI boot and click OK. This will prevent the graphical user interface from loading during the boot process, which will also prevent some drivers from loading.
* Click on the Services tab and check the box next to Hide all Microsoft services. This will show only the
* third-party services and drivers that are running on the system.
* Find the service or driver that corresponds to the device that the technician wants to uninstall and uncheck the box next to it. This will disable the service or driver from starting during the system startup.
* Click Apply and OK and then restart the computer.
* After the computer restarts, the technician can use the Device Manager or the Control Panel to uninstall the driver that was previously in use.
References:
* How to Completely Remove/Uninstall a Driver in Windows, section 31
* The Official CompTIA A+ Core 2 Study Guide (220-1102), page 2212


NEW QUESTION # 268
Which of the following wireless security features can be enabled lo allow a user to use login credentials to attach lo available corporate SSIDs?

  • A. WPA2/AES
  • B. Preshared key
  • C. Kerberos
  • D. TACACS+

Answer: A

Explanation:
WPA2/AES (Wi-Fi Protected Access 2/Advanced Encryption Standard) is a wireless security standard that supports enterprise mode, which allows a user to use login credentials (username and password) to authenticate to available corporate SSIDs (service set identifiers). TACACS+ (Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus) and Kerberos are network authentication protocols, but they are not wireless security features. Preshared key is another wireless security feature, but it does not use login credentials.
Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/wireless-security-standards https://www.comptia.org
/certifications/a


NEW QUESTION # 269
A technician has been asked to set up a new wireless router with the best possible security. Which of the following should the technician implement?

  • A. WPS
  • B. TKIP
  • C. WEP
  • D. WPA3

Answer: D

Explanation:
WPA3 (Wi-Fi Protected Access version 3) is the latest version of Wi-Fi security and offers the highest level of protection available. It is designed to protect against brute force password attempts and protect against eavesdropping and man-in-the-middle attacks. WPA3 also supports the use of stronger encryption algorithms, such as the Advanced Encryption Standard (AES), which provides additional protection for wireless networks. WPA3 should be implemented in order to ensure the best possible security for the new wireless router.


NEW QUESTION # 270
Applications on a computer are not updating, which is preventing the user from opening certain files. Which of the following MMC snap-ins should the technician launch next to continue troubleshooting the issue?

  • A. perfmon.msc
  • B. gpedit.msc
  • C. devmgmt.msc

Answer: C

Explanation:
devmgmt.msc is the MMC snap-in that opens the Device Manager, a tool that allows the technician to view and manage the hardware devices and their drivers on the computer1. If the applications are not updating properly, it could be due to outdated, corrupted, or incompatible drivers that prevent the hardware from functioning normally. The technician can use the Device Manager to update, uninstall, rollback, or disable the drivers, as well as scan for hardware changes, troubleshoot problems, and view device properties2.
gpedit.msc is the MMC snap-in that opens the Group Policy Editor, a tool that allows the technician to configure the local or domain group policy settings for the computer or a group of computers3. Group policy settings can affect the security, performance, and functionality of the system, but they are not directly related to the application updates or the hardware drivers.
perfmon.msc is the MMC snap-in that opens the Performance Monitor, a tool that allows the technician to monitor and analyze the performance of the system and its components, such as processor, memory, disk, network, etc4. Performance Monitor can display real-time data or collect log data for later analysis, as well as generate reports and alerts based on the performance counters5. Performance Monitor can help the technician identify and diagnose performance issues, but it does not provide a way to manage the hardware drivers.
Reference:
The Official CompTIA A+ Core 2 Study Guide6, page 223, 225, 227, 228.


NEW QUESTION # 271
Welcome to your first day as a Fictional Company. LLC helpdesk employee. Please work the tickets in your helpdesk ticket queue.
Click on individual tickers to see the ticket details. View attachments to determine the problem.
Select the appropriate issue from the 'issue' drop-down menu. Then, select the MOST efficient resolution from the 'Resolution' drop-down menu. Finally, select the proper command or verification to remediate or confirm your fix of the issue from the Verify Resolve drop-down menu.


Answer:

Explanation:


NEW QUESTION # 272
A workstation does not recognize a printer. However, the previous day. the printer successfully received a job from the workstation. Which of the following tools should a technician use to see what happened before the failure?

  • A. Performance Monitor
  • B. Devices and Printers
  • C. Event Viewer
  • D. Task Scheduler

Answer: C

Explanation:
When troubleshooting a printer that was previously working but is no longer recognized by a workstation, Event Viewer is the most appropriate tool to check for historical logs and events related to the printer and the system.
* Option A: Performance MonitorPerformance Monitor is used for monitoring system performance and resources in real-time and does not provide specific historical event logs related to device failures.
* Option B: Devices and PrintersDevices and Printers show the status and properties of connected devices but do not provide a historical log of events or errors.
* Option C: Task SchedulerTask Scheduler manages and monitors scheduled tasks but does not log hardware events or errors.
* Option D: Event ViewerEvent Viewer logs system events, including errors, warnings, and information related to hardware and software. It is ideal for checking what happened prior to the printer failure.
References:
* CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Objective 3.1 (Troubleshoot common Windows OS problems), particularly using Event Viewer for diagnosing issues.


NEW QUESTION # 273
A technician needs to exclude an application folder from being cataloged by a Windows 10 search. Which of the following utilities should be used?

  • A. Privacy
  • B. Device Manager
  • C. Indexing Options
  • D. System

Answer: C

Explanation:
To exclude an application folder from being cataloged by a Windows 10 search, the technician should use the Indexing Options utility1


NEW QUESTION # 274
A user reports a computer is running stow. Which of the following tools will help a technician identify the issue?

  • A. Group Policy Editor
  • B. Disk Management
  • C. Disk Cleanup
  • D. Resource Monitor

Answer: D


NEW QUESTION # 275
A technician is replacing the processor in a desktop computer prior to opening the computer, the technician wants to ensure the internal components are protected. Which of the following safety procedures would BEST protect the components in the PC? (Select TWO).

  • A. Placing the PSU in an antistatic bag
  • B. Removing dust from the ventilation fans
  • C. Utilizing an ESD strap
  • D. Ensuring equipment is grounded
  • E. Disconnecting the computer from the power source
  • F. Ensuring proper ventilation

Answer: A,C

Explanation:
The two safety procedures that would best protect the components in the PC are:
Utilizing an ESD strap
Placing the PSU in an antistatic bag
https://www.professormesser.com/free-a-plus-training/220-902/computer-safety-procedures-2/
https://www.skillsoft.com/course/comptia-a-core-2-safety-procedures-environmental-impacts-cbdf0f2c-61c0-4f4a-a659-dc98f1f00158


NEW QUESTION # 276
A user connected a laptop to a wireless network and was tricked into providing login credentials for a website. Which of the following threats was used to carry out the attack?

  • A. Zero day
  • B. Evil twin
  • C. Vishing
  • D. DDoS

Answer: C

Explanation:
Vishing, also known as voice phishing, is a type of social engineering attack where the attacker tricks the victim into divulging sensitive information over the phone. In this case, the attacker tricked the user into providing login credentials for a website.


NEW QUESTION # 277
A Windows workstation that was recently updated with approved system patches shut down instead of restarting. Upon reboot, the technician notices an alert stating the workstation has malware in the root OS folder. The technician promptly performs a System Restore and reboots the workstation, but the malware is still detected. Which of the following BEST describes why the system still has malware?

  • A. A system patch disabled the antivirus protection and host firewall.
  • B. The system restore process was compromised by the malware.
  • C. The system updates did not include the latest anti-malware definitions.
  • D. The malware was installed before the system restore point was created.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The best explanation for why the system still has malware after performing a System Restore is that the malware was installed before the system restore point was created. A system restore point is a snapshot of the system settings and configuration at a certain point in time. A System Restore is a feature that allows users to restore their system to a previous state in case of problems or errors. However, a System Restore does not affect personal files or folders, and it may not remove malware that was already present on the system before the restore point was created. A system patch disabling the antivirus protection and host firewall may increase the risk of malware infection, but it does not explain why the malware persists after a System Restore. The system updates not including the latest anti-malware definitions may reduce the effectiveness of malware detection and removal, but it does not explain why the malware persists after a System Restore. The system restore process being compromised by the malware may prevent a successful System Restore, but it does not explain why the malware persists after a System Restore. Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1002) Certification Exam Objectives Version 4.0, Domain 1.3


NEW QUESTION # 278
A technician receives an invalid certificate error when visiting a website. Other workstations on the same local network are unable to replicate this issue. Which of the following is most likely causing the issue?

  • A. Date and time
  • B. Log-on times
  • C. UEFI boot mode
  • D. User access control

Answer: A

Explanation:
Date and time is the most likely cause of the issue. The date and time settings on a workstation affect the validity of the certificates used by websites to establish secure connections. If the date and time are incorrect, the workstation may not recognize the certificate as valid and display an invalid certificate error. Other workstations on the same local network may not have this issue if their date and time are correct. User access control, UEFI boot mode, and log-on times are not likely causes of the issue. User access control is a feature that prevents unauthorized changes to the system by prompting for confirmation or credentials. UEFI boot mode is a firmware interface that controls the boot process of the workstation. Log-on times are settings that restrict when a user can log in to the workstation. None of these factors affect the validity of the certificates used by websites. References:
Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 14 CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) and Core 2 (220-1102)Cert Guide, page 456


NEW QUESTION # 279
A technician at a customer site is troubleshooting a laptop A software update needs to be downloaded but the company's proxy is blocking traffic to the update site. Which of the following should the technician perform?

  • A. Update Group Policy
  • B. Verity the software license is current.
  • C. Add the site to the client's exceptions list
  • D. Change the DNS address to 1.1.1.1

Answer: C

Explanation:
The technician should add the update site to the client's exceptions list to bypass the proxy. This can be done through the client's web browser settings, where the proxy settings can be configured. By adding the update site to the exceptions list, the client will be able to access the site and download the software update.


NEW QUESTION # 280
A user reports a virus is on a PC. The user installs additional real-lime protection antivirus software, and the PC begins performing extremely slow. Which of the following steps should the technician take to resolve the issue?

  • A. Activate real-time protection on both antivirus software programs
  • B. Enable the quarantine feature on both antivirus software programs.
  • C. Launch Windows Update, and then download and install OS updates
  • D. Remove the user-installed antivirus software program.
  • E. Uninstall one antivirus software program and install a different one.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
Removing the user-installed antivirus software program is the best way to resolve the issue of extremely slow performance caused by installing additional real-time protection antivirus software on a PC. Having more than one antivirus software program running at the same time can cause conflicts, resource consumption and performance degradation. Uninstalling one antivirus software program and installing a different one, activating real-time protection on both antivirus software programs, enabling the quarantine feature on both antivirus software programs and launching Windows Update are not effective ways to resolve the issue. Verified References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/why-you-shouldnt-run-multiple-antivirus-programs-at-the-same-time
https://www.comptia.org/certifications/a


NEW QUESTION # 281
Every time a user tries to open the organization's proprietary application on an Android tablet, the application immediately closes. Other applications are operating normally. Which of the following troubleshooting actions would MOST likely resolve the Issue? (Select TWO).

  • A. Clearing the application storage
  • B. Deleting the application cache
  • C. Disabling mobile device management
  • D. Gaining root access to the tablet
  • E. Resetting the web browser cache
  • F. Uninstalling the application

Answer: A,F

Explanation:
Explanation
Uninstalling and reinstalling the application can resolve the issue of it crashing immediately on an Android tablet, as it can fix any corrupted or missing files or settings. Clearing the application storage can also resolve the issue, as it can free up space and remove any conflicting data. Gaining root access to the tablet, resetting the web browser cache, deleting the application cache and disabling mobile device management are not likely to resolve the issue, as they do not affect how the application runs. Verified References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/how-to-fix-android-apps-crashing https://www.comptia.org/certifications/a


NEW QUESTION # 282
A technician is unable to access the internet or named network resources. The technician receives a valid IP address from the DHCP server and can ping the default gateway. Which of the following should the technician check next to resolve the issue?
* Verify the DNS server settings.

  • A. Confirm the subnet mask is correct.
  • B. Turn off the Windows firewall.
  • C. Configure a static IP address.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Verify the DNS server settings. This is because the DNS server is responsible for resolving domain names to IP addresses, which is necessary for accessing the internet or named network resources. If the DNS server settings are incorrect or the DNS server is down, the technician will not be able to access these resources even if they have a valid IP address and can ping the default gateway1.
1: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2 Objectives, page 16, section 1.10.


NEW QUESTION # 283
A user's mobile phone has become sluggish A systems administrator discovered several malicious applications on the device and reset the phone. The administrator installed MDM software. Which of the following should the administrator do to help secure the device against this threat in the future? (Select TWO).

  • A. Enable developer mode
  • B. Prevent GPS spoofing
  • C. Disable biometric authentication
  • D. Prevent a device root
  • E. Block a third-party application installation
  • F. Require a PIN on the unlock screen

Answer: E,F

Explanation:
Explanation
To help secure the device against this threat in the future, the administrator should require a PIN on the unlock screen and block a third-party application installation. Requiring a PIN on the unlock screen can help to prevent unauthorized access to the device, while blocking third-party application installation can help to prevent malicious applications from being installed on the device.


NEW QUESTION # 284
While assisting a customer with an issue, a support representative realizes the appointment is taking longer than expected and will cause the next customer meeting to be delayed by five minutes. Which of the following should the support representative do NEXT?

  • A. Arrive late to the next meeting without acknowledging the lime.
  • B. Apologize to the next customer when arriving late.
  • C. Cut the current customer's lime short and rush to the next customer.
  • D. Send a quick message regarding the delay to the next customer.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation
The support representative should send a quick message regarding the delay to the next customer. This will help the next customer understand the situation and adjust their schedule accordingly.


NEW QUESTION # 285
A technician received a call from a user who clicked on a web advertisement Now. every time the user moves the mouse, a pop-up display across the monitor. Which of the following procedures should the technician perform?

  • A. Reinstall the browser
  • B. Boot into safe mode.
  • C. Perform a malware scan.
  • D. Restart the machine.

Answer: B,C

Explanation:
Explanation
Booting into safe mode and performing a malware scan are the steps that a technician should perform when troubleshooting an issue with pop-up advertising messages on a PC. Safe mode is a diagnostic mode that starts the PC with minimal drivers and services, which can prevent the pop-up malware from running. Malware scan is a tool that can detect and remove the pop-up malware, as well as prevent further infection or damage.
Investigating how the malware was installed, reinstalling the browser and restarting the machine are possible steps that can be done after booting into safe mode and performing a malware scan, depending on the situation and the results of the scan. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/how-to-boot-into-safe-mode
https://www.comptia.org/certifications/a


NEW QUESTION # 286
A technician needs to import a new digital certificate and place it in the proper location. Which of the following Control Panel utilities should the technician use to import the certificate?

  • A. Network and Sharing Center
  • B. Credential Manager
  • C. Internet Options
  • D. Security and Maintenance

Answer: C

Explanation:
To import a new digital certificate and place it in the proper location, the technician should use the "Internet Options" utility in the Control Panel. This utility allows users to manage various settings related to internet connections and security, including the import and management of digital certificates under the "Content" tab.
* B. Network and Sharing Center is used for managing network connections and sharing settings but not for managing digital certificates.
* C. Credential Manager is used to store and manage login credentials for websites and applications but not for importing digital certificates.
* D. Security and Maintenance provides an overview of the security and maintenance status of the system but does not directly handle digital certificate management.
References:
* CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1102) Exam Objectives, Section 1.4: Using Control Panel utilities including Internet Options for managing digital certificates.


NEW QUESTION # 287
A technician needs to transfer a large number of files over an unreliable connection. The technician should be able to resume the process if the connection is interrupted. Which of the following tools can be used?

  • A. afc
  • B. ehkdsk
  • C. git clone
  • D. zobocopy

Answer: A

Explanation:
The technician should use afc to transfer a large number of files over an unreliable connection and be able to resume the process if the connection is interrupted1


NEW QUESTION # 288
A technician is installing software on a user's workstation. The installation fails due to incompliance with the HCL. Which of the following components is most likely causing the installation to fail? (Select two).

  • A. CPU
  • B. PSU
  • C. KVM
  • D. RAM
  • E. NIC
  • F. DVI

Answer: A,E

Explanation:
The Hardware Compatibility List (HCL) is a list that indicates hardware components that are compatible with a specific software or operating system. If software installation fails due to incompliance with the HCL, it's most likely due to core hardware components like the Network Interface Card (NIC) or the Central Processing Unit (CPU) not being supported or not meeting the software's minimum hardware requirements. The PSU, KVM, RAM, and DVI are less likely to directly impact software compatibility as defined by the HCL.


NEW QUESTION # 289
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CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 2 (220-1102) is a professional certification exam that validates the skills and knowledge required for entry-level IT professionals. 220-1102 exam is designed to assess the candidate's abilities in installation and configuration of operating systems, software troubleshooting, network management, security concepts, and operational procedures. Passing 220-1102 exam is a significant achievement for any IT professional, as it is widely recognized and respected by employers in the industry.

 

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